A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential for clients taking spironolactone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly impact serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels significantly. While these values may be monitored for other reasons in a client with heart failure, they are not the primary focus of monitoring when spironolactone is prescribed.
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Risk factors for drug abuse include:
- A. Family history of addiction
- B. Mental health disorders
- C. Peer pressure
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because family history (genetic predisposition), mental health issues (self-medication), and peer pressure (social influence) are all established risk factors, per SAMHSA. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one factor. Choice B is wrong by itself because mental health is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since pressure is only one element.
The healthcare provider is monitoring a client following cardioversion. Which observation should be of the highest priority to the healthcare provider?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Status of airway
- C. Oxygen flow rate
- D. Level of consciousness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The status of the airway is the highest priority following cardioversion as it ensures proper oxygenation and helps prevent complications such as airway obstruction and respiratory distress. Maintaining a patent airway is crucial for the client's respiratory function and overall well-being immediately after cardioversion. Monitoring the airway ensures that the client can breathe effectively and minimizes the risk of hypoxia and other serious respiratory issues. While blood pressure, oxygen flow rate, and level of consciousness are also important parameters to monitor, they are secondary to ensuring a clear and patent airway for adequate oxygenation.
The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.
An NP is prescribing a medication for a 6-month-old infant. The medication comes in the following formulations. Which one should the NP select to improve absorption and distribution of the medication?
- A. Oral elixir
- B. Rectal suppository
- C. Lipid soluble compound
- D. Sustained-release capsule
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral elixirs ensure even drug distribution and good GI absorption in infants. Choice B is incorrect (rectal absorption is unreliable). Choice C is wrong (lipid solubility doesn’t ensure distribution). Choice D is inaccurate (sustained-release is poorly absorbed in infants).
Pharmacokinetic changes in women's bodies that affect drug dosing include:
- A. Increased body fat
- B. Increased glomerular filtration rate in pregnancy
- C. Decreased gastric emptying
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because increased body fat (alters distribution), higher GFR in pregnancy (increases clearance), and slower gastric emptying (affects absorption) all change pharmacokinetics, impacting dosing. Choice A is incorrect alone as fat is one change. Choice B is wrong by itself because GFR is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since gastric emptying is only one factor.