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A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Nausea
- D. Vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, can lead to toxicity manifesting as various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a notable indicator. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can indicate the need for dosage adjustment or discontinuation of digoxin to prevent adverse effects.
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A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed fondaparinux. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed fondaparinux, the nurse should monitor for the potential adverse effect of an increased risk of bleeding. Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stool.
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?
- A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD prescribed omeprazole is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Omeprazole works best when taken on an empty stomach, approximately 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and helps manage symptoms of GERD more efficiently.
A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?
- A. Notify the client's health care provider.
- B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
- C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
- D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.
A client undergoing hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease is taking the medication erythropoietin. The nurse should reinforce instructions to explain for which reason this medication is prescribed?
- A. This drug prevents infections associated with dialysis.
- B. This drug prevents deep vein thrombosis in older clients.
- C. This drug helps stimulate the production of red blood cells.
- D. This drug helps balance the level of phosphorus in the body.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin is prescribed to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Clients undergoing hemodialysis often develop anemia due to end-stage renal disease. Erythropoietin helps in correcting this anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. It is not used to prevent infections associated with dialysis, deep vein thrombosis, or to balance phosphorus levels in the body.
A client has been prescribed losartan. Which change in data indicates to the practical nurse (PN) that the desired effect of this medication has been achieved?
- A. Dependent edema reduced from +3 to +1.
- B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55 mg/dL.
- C. Pulse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min.
- D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Losartan is prescribed for the treatment of hypertension. The desired effect of losartan is to reduce blood pressure. Therefore, a reduction in blood pressure from 160/90 to 130/80 mm Hg indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved. Choices A, B, and C are not specific effects of losartan and do not directly relate to the expected outcomes of this medication.