LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions Related

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A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

  • A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
  • B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
  • C. Platelet count
  • D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

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A 24-year-old man seeks medical attention for complaints of claudication in the arch of the foot. The nurse also notes superficial thrombophlebitis of the lower leg. What should the nurse check the client for next?

  • A. Smoking history
  • B. Recent exposure to allergens
  • C. History of recent insect bites
  • D. Familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should check the client's smoking history next. Smoking is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease, leading to the development of thrombophlebitis and claudication. It is important to assess this risk factor as it can significantly impact the client's vascular health and the progression of their current symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client. Recent exposure to allergens or insect bites would typically present with different symptoms, and familial tendency toward peripheral vascular disease is not the immediate concern in this case.

Differences between brand-name drugs and their generic equivalents include:

  • A. Active ingredient
  • B. Cost
  • C. Color of the tablet
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because generics have the same active ingredient as brand-name drugs but typically cost less, per FDA bioequivalence rules. Choice A is incorrect as active ingredients are identical. Choice C is wrong because color may differ but isn't a functional difference. Choice D is incorrect since only cost is a consistent distinction.

VKORC1 genetic variations would affect which drug?

  • A. Warfarin
  • B. Codeine
  • C. Acetaminophen
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because VKORC1 variants alter warfarin's target enzyme, affecting its anticoagulant effect and requiring dose adjustments. Choice B is incorrect as codeine's action is CYP2D6-mediated, not VKORC1-related. Choice C is wrong because acetaminophen doesn't interact with VKORC1—it's unrelated to coagulation. Choice D is incorrect since only warfarin is impacted by VKORC1 genetics.

Patient education for the elderly should include:

  • A. Explanation of drug purpose
  • B. Instructions for safe administration
  • C. Potential side effects
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is correct because explaining purpose (improves adherence), safe administration (prevents errors), and side effects (enhances safety) are all key for elderly education, per geriatric care. Choice A is incorrect alone as it's one aspect. Choice B is wrong by itself because administration is just part. Choice C is incorrect solo since side effects are only one element.

Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:

  • A. Human bioavailability trials
  • B. Post marketing research
  • C. Human safety and efficacy studies
  • D. The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because phase IV trials occur after drug approval, monitoring long-term effects and safety in the general population, known as post-marketing research. Choice A is incorrect as bioavailability is studied earlier, like phase I. Choice C is wrong because safety and efficacy are pre-approval (phases I-III). Choice D is incorrect since phase IV isn't animal-based—it's post-approval human study.

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