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A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
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A nurse in a mental health unit is preparing to terminate the nurse-client relationship with a client who no longer requires care. Which concept should the nurse and client discuss in the termination phase of the relationship?
- A. Loss
- B. Autonomy
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Accountability
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the termination phase of a nurse-client relationship, discussing 'loss' is crucial to help the client understand and process the end of the therapeutic relationship and any emotional impact. This discussion can aid in closure and transitioning out of the professional relationship. 'Autonomy' refers to the client's right to make decisions about their care, which is important throughout the relationship but not specifically in the termination phase. 'Confidentiality' is essential for maintaining trust but is not the primary focus during termination. 'Accountability' involves being answerable for one's actions, which is important in nursing practice but not a central topic in the termination phase of the relationship.
The healthcare professional is assessing a client who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention. This finding suggests a potential surgical site issue that needs urgent attention to prevent further complications. Absent bowel sounds, pain level, and a slightly elevated temperature are common post-operative findings that may not necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a saturated abdominal dressing. Absent bowel sounds can be common after surgery due to anesthesia but may resolve with time. Pain and slightly elevated temperature are expected post-operative findings that can be managed with appropriate pain relief and monitoring. However, a saturated abdominal dressing indicates a potential ongoing issue at the surgical site that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 83 gtt/min
- B. 125 gtt/min
- C. 100 gtt/min
- D. 75 gtt/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL · 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.
The nurse is having difficulty reading the healthcare provider's written order that was written right before the shift change. What action should be taken?
- A. Leave the order for the oncoming staff to follow up
- B. Contact the charge nurse for an interpretation
- C. Ask the pharmacy for assistance in interpretation
- D. Call the provider for clarification
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should call the provider for clarification. In situations where there is difficulty reading an order, it is crucial to directly contact the healthcare provider to ensure the correct order is understood and followed. Leaving the order for the oncoming staff (Choice A) may lead to misunderstandings and errors. Contacting the charge nurse (Choice B) may cause delays as they may also need to contact the provider. Asking the pharmacy (Choice C) is not the most direct and immediate action in this scenario, as the provider is the one who can provide immediate clarification.
A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?
- A. A patient who is afebrile
- B. A patient who is diaphoretic
- C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
- D. A patient with adequate skin turgor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.