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A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Obtain a detailed health history.
- D. Monitor urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering antihypertensive medication is the priority nursing action in this situation. The extremely high blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg puts the client at risk of severe complications such as stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. Lowering the blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent these complications. Placing the client in a supine position or obtaining a detailed health history are not immediate actions needed to address the hypertensive crisis. Monitoring urine output, although important, is not the priority when the client's blood pressure is critically high.
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A client who is newly diagnosed with emphysema is being prepared for discharge. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide the client to assist them with dyspnea self-management?
- A. Allow additional time to complete physical activities to reduce oxygen demand.
- B. Practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips.
- C. Use a humidifier to increase home air quality humidity between 30-50%.
- D. Strengthen abdominal muscles by alternating leg raises during exhalation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips can help improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea. This technique, known as pursed lip breathing, can help regulate breathing patterns and decrease the work of breathing in clients with emphysema. Choice A is incorrect because allowing additional time for physical activities does not directly address dyspnea management. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier, although beneficial for respiratory conditions, does not specifically assist with dyspnea self-management. Choice D is also incorrect as strengthening abdominal muscles through leg raises does not directly target dyspnea relief.
Following a bout of diarrhea, which foods should be offered to the school-age child?
- A. Apricots and peaches
- B. Chocolate milk
- C. Applesauce and milk
- D. Bananas and rice
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After rehydration, it is important to offer foods that are nonirritating to the bowel to the child. Bananas and rice are considered the best options as they are least likely to irritate the gastrointestinal tract. Apricots, peaches, and applesauce are fruits that may cause GI irritation, while milk, including chocolate milk, can also be irritating to the bowel. Therefore, the optimal choice for a child recovering from diarrhea would be bananas and rice.
An older male client tells the nurse that he is losing sleep because he has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom, that he has trouble starting his urinary stream, and that he does not feel like his bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
- B. Review the client's fluid intake prior to bedtime
- C. Palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
- D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Palpating the bladder above the symphysis pubis is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps assess for urinary retention, which is a common issue in older males presenting with symptoms like difficulty starting urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. Collecting a urine specimen for culture analysis (Choice A) may be necessary in other situations like suspected urinary tract infection. Reviewing the client's fluid intake (Choice B) is important but does not directly address the current issue of urinary retention. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose level (Choice D) is not relevant to the client's urinary symptoms.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- C. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Fluid level in the suction control chamber is below the prescribed level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.
A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?
- A. Decrease blood glucose levels
- B. Reduce serum ammonia levels
- C. Increase platelet count
- D. Lower serum bilirubin levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.