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A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
- C. Decreased heart rate.
- D. Improved liver function.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events in patients with a history of MI. Lowering cholesterol helps prevent plaque buildup in arteries, reducing the likelihood of another MI. Increased blood pressure (A) and decreased heart rate (C) are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness. Improved liver function (D) may be a consideration due to potential side effects, but the primary goal of atorvastatin is to lower cholesterol levels to prevent cardiovascular events.
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A client with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Apply the patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin.
- B. Use a heating pad over the patch to enhance absorption.
- C. Change the patch daily to maintain effectiveness.
- D. Place the patch on the same site with each application.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Applying the fentanyl patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin ensures proper absorption and effectiveness. Moisture, oils, and hair can interfere with absorption. Option B is incorrect as heating pads can increase drug absorption and lead to overdose. Option C is incorrect because fentanyl patches are usually changed every 72 hours, not daily. Option D is incorrect because rotating application sites helps prevent skin irritation and tolerance development.
A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?
- A. Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider.'
- B. Increase your intake of iodine-rich foods, such as seafood and dairy products.'
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.'
- D. You may experience weight gain and fatigue as side effects of the medication.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider." This is important because PTU can cause agranulocytosis, a serious side effect that can lead to severe infections. By reporting signs of infection early, the healthcare provider can monitor the client's blood counts and adjust treatment if necessary.
Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of iodine-rich foods can worsen hyperthyroidism. Choice C is incorrect because PTU should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because weight gain and fatigue are not common side effects of PTU; in fact, weight loss and hyperactivity are more common.
A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Creatinine clearance
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum potassium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys may not produce enough erythropoietin, leading to anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, reviewing the hemoglobin level is crucial to determine the need for the medication.
Incorrect choices:
A: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and B: Creatinine clearance are indicators of kidney function but not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
D: Serum potassium is important in renal failure but not specifically needed to review before administering epoetin alfa.
A client who has just started taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing nausea. What should the nurse recommend to the client?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Consume a low-protein snack with the medication.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Stop taking the medication and notify your healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume a low-protein snack with the medication. This is because levodopa absorption is improved when taken with a low-protein snack, reducing the risk of nausea. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach can exacerbate nausea. Choice C is incorrect as increasing dairy intake can interfere with levodopa absorption. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping the medication can worsen Parkinson's symptoms.
The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber.
- C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- D. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system, which can lead to pneumothorax or compromised lung function. Immediate intervention is required to prevent complications. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber (B) is expected after thoracotomy. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber (C) is normal and indicates proper suction function. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall (D) is essential for stability and should not require immediate intervention.