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A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
- C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to position the client in a high Fowler's position first. This helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators or obtaining an ABG sample can wait until the client's oxygenation is improved. Pursed-lip breathing can be helpful, but positioning is more critical in this situation.
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The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. What intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the NG tube?
- A. Flush the NG tube with water before and after feedings.
- B. Check gastric residual volume every 6 hours.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.
- D. Replace the NG tube every 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.
Rationale:
1. Elevating the head of the bed at 30 degrees helps prevent aspiration by promoting proper drainage of gastric contents.
2. This position reduces the risk of reflux and pulmonary complications in clients with NG tubes.
3. It also helps maintain the proper position of the tube in the stomach, decreasing the likelihood of displacement.
Summary of Other Choices:
A. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after feedings is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent complications associated with the NG tube.
B. Checking gastric residual volume every 6 hours is important to monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent complications related to the NG tube.
D. Replacing the NG tube every 24 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications such as tube blockage or dislodgment. Regular replacement can increase the risk of complications and is not a standard practice.
A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?
- A. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- B. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
- C. Folic acid
- D. Vitamin D
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, causing neurological symptoms like confusion and unsteady gait (Wernicke's encephalopathy). Thiamine is crucial for brain function and alcohol interferes with its absorption. Vitamin B12 (choice B) deficiency can also cause neurological symptoms but is less likely in this case. Folic acid (choice C) deficiency can lead to anemia and neural tube defects, not directly related to the symptoms described. Vitamin D (choice D) deficiency typically presents with bone pain and muscle weakness, not confusion and gait issues.
The nurse is planning care for a 16-year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA). The nurse includes activities to strengthen and mobilize the joints and surrounding muscles. Which physical therapy regimen should the nurse encourage the adolescent to implement?
- A. Exercise in a swimming pool.
- B. Splint affected joints during activity.
- C. Perform passive range of motion exercises twice daily.
- D. Begin a training program of lifting weights and running.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Exercise in a swimming pool. This option is ideal for a 16-year-old with JRA because it provides a low-impact environment that helps strengthen muscles and improve joint mobility without putting excessive stress on the joints. Swimming also helps reduce pain and stiffness associated with JRA.
Choice B (Splint affected joints during activity) is incorrect because splinting may restrict movement and hinder muscle strengthening. Choice C (Perform passive range of motion exercises twice daily) is not as effective as active exercises in improving muscle strength and joint mobility. Choice D (Begin a training program of lifting weights and running) can be too high-impact and may exacerbate joint inflammation and pain in individuals with JRA.
A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Decreased blood pressure.
- C. Improved hemoglobin levels.
- D. Stable potassium levels.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Improved hemoglobin levels. Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure by stimulating red blood cell production. Improved hemoglobin levels indicate that the medication is effective in addressing the anemia associated with renal failure. Increased urine output (A) is not a direct outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Decreased blood pressure (B) and stable potassium levels (D) are not specific indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating anemia.
A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to receive epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory result should the nurse review before administering the medication?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Creatinine clearance
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Serum potassium
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys may not produce enough erythropoietin, leading to anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, reviewing the hemoglobin level is crucial to determine the need for the medication.
Incorrect choices:
A: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and B: Creatinine clearance are indicators of kidney function but not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.
D: Serum potassium is important in renal failure but not specifically needed to review before administering epoetin alfa.