Nokea
A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Aspirin.
- B. Allopurinol (Zyloprim).
- C. Colchicine.
- D. Probenecid (Benemid).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Colchicine. Colchicine is used to treat acute gout attacks by reducing inflammation and pain. It works by decreasing the inflammatory response to urate crystals in the joints. Aspirin (choice A) is not recommended for gout treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Allopurinol (choice B) and Probenecid (choice D) are used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels and preventing future attacks, not for acute attacks. Colchicine is the appropriate choice for treating the client's acute gout symptoms.
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A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the diet?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Creatinine clearance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). BUN is a waste product that reflects protein intake and kidney function. In chronic kidney disease, high protein intake can increase BUN levels, so monitoring BUN helps assess the effectiveness of the low-protein diet.
Incorrect choices:
B: Serum potassium - This is more related to kidney function but not specifically affected by a low-protein diet.
C: Serum calcium - Calcium levels are not directly affected by protein intake or a low-protein diet in chronic kidney disease.
D: Creatinine clearance - This measures kidney function but is not directly influenced by protein intake.
The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. What intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the NG tube?
- A. Flush the NG tube with water before and after feedings.
- B. Check gastric residual volume every 6 hours.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.
- D. Replace the NG tube every 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.
Rationale:
1. Elevating the head of the bed at 30 degrees helps prevent aspiration by promoting proper drainage of gastric contents.
2. This position reduces the risk of reflux and pulmonary complications in clients with NG tubes.
3. It also helps maintain the proper position of the tube in the stomach, decreasing the likelihood of displacement.
Summary of Other Choices:
A. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after feedings is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent complications associated with the NG tube.
B. Checking gastric residual volume every 6 hours is important to monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent complications related to the NG tube.
D. Replacing the NG tube every 24 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications such as tube blockage or dislodgment. Regular replacement can increase the risk of complications and is not a standard practice.
A client with hypertension is receiving dietary education from a nurse. Which recommendation should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Limit your sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day.
- C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- D. Consume at least three alcoholic beverages daily.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit your sodium intake to less than 2 grams per day. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing hypertension as it helps reduce blood pressure. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and increased blood volume, worsening hypertension. This recommendation aligns with evidence-based guidelines for hypertension management.
Incorrect choices:
A: Increasing saturated fat intake is not recommended for hypertension, as it can lead to cardiovascular issues.
C: Avoiding foods high in potassium is not advised, as potassium helps regulate blood pressure.
D: Consuming alcoholic beverages daily can raise blood pressure and interfere with hypertension management.
A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Improved hemoglobin levels.
- C. Decreased blood pressure.
- D. Stable potassium levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. This is the desired outcome in a client with chronic renal failure, as it helps alleviate anemia.
Choice A is incorrect because increased urine output is not a direct indicator of erythropoietin effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as erythropoietin does not directly impact blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because stable potassium levels are not a primary outcome of erythropoietin therapy in chronic renal failure.
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with a foot ulcer. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to promote healing of the ulcer?
- A. Apply a heating pad to the ulcer twice daily.
- B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect the ulcer.
- C. Keep the ulcer clean and dry.
- D. Limit walking to reduce pressure on the ulcer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Keep the ulcer clean and dry. This instruction is essential for promoting healing of the foot ulcer in a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Keeping the ulcer clean helps prevent infection, while keeping it dry promotes a better environment for healing.
A: Applying a heating pad can increase the risk of burns and should be avoided.
B: Wearing tight-fitting shoes can cause further damage and hinder healing.
D: Limiting walking may reduce pressure on the ulcer, but mobility is important for circulation and overall health. Keeping the ulcer clean and dry is the most critical instruction.