Nokea
The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
- B. Keep the client's room warm.
- C. Ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly.
- D. Limit the client's intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly. Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs in clients with spinal cord injuries. It is triggered by a distended bladder or bowel. By regularly emptying the client's bladder, the nurse can prevent the stimulus that leads to autonomic dysreflexia. Option A is incorrect because restricting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, exacerbating the condition. Option B is incorrect as temperature regulation is not directly related to preventing autonomic dysreflexia. Option D is incorrect as high-fiber foods do not play a role in triggering this condition.
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A healthcare professional is assessing a client with severe dehydration. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
- B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg.
- C. Urine output of 20 ml/hour.
- D. Dry mucous membranes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output of 20 ml/hour. In severe dehydration, decreased urine output indicates compromised renal function and impaired fluid balance, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications. A: Heart rate of 110 bpm is elevated but not an immediate concern. B: Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is low but may be compensated in dehydration. D: Dry mucous membranes are a sign of dehydration but not an immediate threat compared to inadequate urine output.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
- C. Decreased heart rate.
- D. Improved liver function.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events in patients with a history of MI. Lowering cholesterol helps prevent plaque buildup in arteries, reducing the likelihood of another MI. Increased blood pressure (A) and decreased heart rate (C) are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness. Improved liver function (D) may be a consideration due to potential side effects, but the primary goal of atorvastatin is to lower cholesterol levels to prevent cardiovascular events.
An 85-year-old male resident of an extended care facility reaches for the hand of an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and tries to kiss her hand several times during his morning care. The UAP reports the incident to the charge nurse. What is the best assessment of the situation?
- A. This behavior can be considered sexual harassment and should be reported to the administration immediately.
- B. The UAP should be reassigned to another group of residents, preferably females only.
- C. The client may be suffering from touch deprivation and needs to know appropriate ways to express his need.
- D. The resident needs to understand the rules regarding unwanted touching of the staff and the consequences.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the behavior exhibited by the resident may stem from touch deprivation rather than being intentional sexual harassment. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. Understanding the resident's age and environment (extended care facility) helps in interpreting his behavior.
2. The resident's actions suggest a need for touch, which is common in older adults who may lack physical contact.
3. Educating the resident on appropriate ways to express his need for touch can address the underlying issue.
4. Reassigning the UAP or reporting the incident as sexual harassment (options A and B) may not address the root cause of the behavior and could potentially harm the resident's well-being.
In summary, choice C focuses on addressing the resident's potential touch deprivation in a compassionate and understanding manner, making it the best assessment of the situation.
The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate.
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation.
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Elevated white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate effective treatment as they suggest improved air exchange and resolution of lung congestion caused by pneumonia. Increased respiratory rate (A) and decreased oxygen saturation (B) are signs of respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (D) indicates ongoing infection, not effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, clear lung sounds are the best indicator of treatment effectiveness in bacterial pneumonia.
When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Positive Babinski reflex
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Both A and C. Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are both indicative of meningeal irritation. Brudzinski's sign is when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hip and knee. Kernig's sign is when there is resistance or pain with knee extension after hip flexion. These signs suggest inflammation of the meninges, commonly seen in meningitis. Babinski reflex (choice B) is not specific to meningitis and is related to upper motor neuron dysfunction. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the two most relevant signs for meningeal irritation, while the other choices are not directly associated with this condition.