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A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
- B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
- C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
- D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This is essential to prevent excessive bleeding during and after the procedure. Chronic kidney disease patients are at higher risk of bleeding due to impaired kidney function.
A: Maintaining a low-protein diet is not directly related to the biopsy procedure and is not necessary.
C: Drinking plenty of fluids may be beneficial for renal function but is not a specific pre-procedure instruction for a renal biopsy.
D: Taking routine medications with water is important, but specific instructions regarding anticoagulant medications are more critical in this case.
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A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
- D. Fibrinogen level.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, affecting the PT and INR. Monitoring these levels helps assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing clot formation. Platelet count (A) assesses clotting ability but not the effectiveness of warfarin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (C) assesses intrinsic pathway clotting factors, not affected by warfarin. Fibrinogen level (D) assesses the final step of clot formation, not specific to warfarin effectiveness.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which clinical manifestation should the healthcare provider expect to find?
- A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Moon face and buffalo hump.
- D. Weight loss.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Moon face and buffalo hump. In Cushing's syndrome, excessive cortisol production leads to characteristic symptoms like moon face (round, puffy face) and buffalo hump (fat accumulation at the back of the neck). This is due to redistribution of fat in the body. Hyperpigmentation (choice A) is seen in Addison's disease, not Cushing's. Hypotension (choice B) is unlikely due to the cortisol-induced sodium retention. Weight loss (choice D) is less common in Cushing's due to the metabolic changes causing weight gain.
The client has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage) for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Take the medication with meals. Metformin is typically taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Food helps in the absorption and tolerance of the medication. Taking it on an empty stomach can lead to stomach upset. Taking it at bedtime may also cause nighttime disruptions. Taking it as needed for high blood sugar is not appropriate as metformin is usually taken regularly to control blood sugar levels.
When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Positive Babinski reflex
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Both A and C. Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are both indicative of meningeal irritation. Brudzinski's sign is when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hip and knee. Kernig's sign is when there is resistance or pain with knee extension after hip flexion. These signs suggest inflammation of the meninges, commonly seen in meningitis. Babinski reflex (choice B) is not specific to meningitis and is related to upper motor neuron dysfunction. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the two most relevant signs for meningeal irritation, while the other choices are not directly associated with this condition.
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse teach the client to report?
- A. Increased appetite.
- B. Yellow or blurred vision.
- C. Weight gain.
- D. Nasal congestion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yellow or blurred vision. Digoxin toxicity can lead to visual disturbances, such as yellow or blurred vision, due to its effects on the optic nerve. The nurse should teach the client to report this symptom immediately as it indicates a serious adverse effect. Increased appetite (A), weight gain (C), and nasal congestion (D) are not specific signs of digoxin toxicity and are more commonly associated with other health conditions or side effects of medications. It is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of monitoring and reporting any visual changes to prevent serious complications from digoxin toxicity.