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The client has been prescribed metformin (Glucophage) for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication as needed for high blood sugar.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Take the medication with meals. Metformin is typically taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Food helps in the absorption and tolerance of the medication. Taking it on an empty stomach can lead to stomach upset. Taking it at bedtime may also cause nighttime disruptions. Taking it as needed for high blood sugar is not appropriate as metformin is usually taken regularly to control blood sugar levels.
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When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Positive Babinski reflex
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Both A and C. Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are both indicative of meningeal irritation. Brudzinski's sign is when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hip and knee. Kernig's sign is when there is resistance or pain with knee extension after hip flexion. These signs suggest inflammation of the meninges, commonly seen in meningitis. Babinski reflex (choice B) is not specific to meningitis and is related to upper motor neuron dysfunction. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the two most relevant signs for meningeal irritation, while the other choices are not directly associated with this condition.
A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?
- A. Aspirin.
- B. Allopurinol (Zyloprim).
- C. Colchicine.
- D. Probenecid (Benemid).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Colchicine. Colchicine is used to treat acute gout attacks by reducing inflammation and pain. It works by decreasing the inflammatory response to urate crystals in the joints. Aspirin (choice A) is not recommended for gout treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Allopurinol (choice B) and Probenecid (choice D) are used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels and preventing future attacks, not for acute attacks. Colchicine is the appropriate choice for treating the client's acute gout symptoms.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. Which laboratory result requires the most immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 350 mg/dL.
- B. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L.
- C. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L.
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L. Hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, especially in diabetic patients with hyperglycemia. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent cardiac complications.
A: Serum glucose of 350 mg/dL is high but not immediately life-threatening.
C: Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention.
D: Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L is slightly low but does not pose an immediate risk to the patient's life.
A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Apply pressure to the injection site.
- D. Administer protamine sulfate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider. A prolonged aPTT of 90 seconds indicates the client is at risk for bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation from heparin therapy. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to adjust the dosage or consider discontinuing heparin to prevent bleeding complications. Increasing the heparin infusion rate (A) would worsen the risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site (C) is not appropriate in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate (D) is the antidote for heparin overdose, but it is not the first action to take in this scenario.
The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate.
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation.
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Elevated white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate effective treatment as they suggest improved air exchange and resolution of lung congestion caused by pneumonia. Increased respiratory rate (A) and decreased oxygen saturation (B) are signs of respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (D) indicates ongoing infection, not effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, clear lung sounds are the best indicator of treatment effectiveness in bacterial pneumonia.