Nokea
A client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of cancer?
- A. Persistent nausea
- B. Indigestion
- C. Rash
- D. Chronic ache or pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chronic ache or pain is another warning sign of cancer. Persistent pain that does not go away and continues for weeks or months could be a symptom of cancer. It is important not to ignore persistent pain and to consult a healthcare provider if such pain exists, as it could be a sign of an underlying issue like cancer. Early detection and treatment are key in managing cancer and improving outcomes for patients.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is taking care of a 2-year-old child with a macule skin lesion. Which clinical finding should the nurse expect to assess with this type of lesion?
- A. Flat, nonpalpable, and irregularly shaped lesion that is greater than 1 cm in diameter
- B. Heaped-up keratinized cells, flaky exfoliation, irregular, thick or thin, dry or oily, varied in size
- C. Flat, brown mole less than 1 cm in diameter
- D. Elevated, flat-topped, firm, rough, superficial papule greater than 1 cm in diameter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A macule is a flat, nonpalpable, and discolored area on the skin that is less than 1 cm in diameter. This type of skin lesion is typically characterized by a change in color without any change in texture or thickness of the skin. The clinical finding associated with a macule is a flat, nonpalpable lesion that is smaller in size (less than 1 cm) and regularly shaped. Therefore, the nurse should expect to assess a flat, nonpalpable, and irregularly shaped lesion that is greater than 1 cm in diameter with a different type of skin lesion, not a macule.
The health-care provider diagnosed a child with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. The parents expressed their concern to you that their child's leg will be amputated. How should you respond?
- A. It is too soon to determine if amputation is necessary.
- B. No amputation is necessary because the child will make a full recovery once the disease runs its course.
- C. The health-care provider is the best person to talk to you about amputation.
- D. Not all children who have the disease require amputation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, also known as Perthes disease, is a condition where there is a temporary loss of blood supply to the hip, leading to the breakdown of the hip joint. While in severe cases amputation may be considered as a treatment option, it is important to reassure the parents that not all children with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease require amputation. The course of treatment will depend on the severity of the condition and the individual child's response to different therapies. Therefore, it is crucial to emphasize that amputation is not the automatic outcome for all cases of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Encouraging the parents to discuss their concerns with the healthcare provider can provide more specific information and guidance tailored to their child's condition.
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For male clients over age 50, early identification of prostate cancer involves a combination of regular digital rectal examination and PSA test. The digital rectal examination allows a healthcare provider to manually assess the size, shape, and consistency of the prostate gland, looking for any abnormalities such as nodules or hard areas that may indicate prostate cancer. The PSA test measures the level of prostate-specific antigen in the blood, with elevated levels potentially signaling the presence of prostate cancer. Yearly screening using both these methods increases the chances of early detection and optimal management of prostate cancer in older male clients. Regular monitoring helps in identifying the disease at an earlier, more treatable stage, improving outcomes and prognosis.
A patient who has just had a TURP asks his nurse to explain why he has to have the bladder irrigation because it seems to increase his pain. Which of the following explanations by the nurse is best?
- A. "The bladder irrigation is needed to stop the bleeding in the bladder."
- B. "Antibiotics are being administered into the bladder to prevent infection."
- C. "The irrigation is needed to keep the catheter from becoming occluded by blood clots."
- D. "Normal production of urine is maintained with the irrigations until healing can occur."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best explanation for the patient is option C, which states, "The irrigation is needed to keep the catheter from becoming occluded by blood clots." After a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), it is common for the patient to have some bleeding in the bladder. Bladder irrigation is done to prevent blood clots from forming and blocking the catheter. Keeping the catheter patent is important to ensure proper drainage of urine and prevent complications such as urinary retention. While the other options are related to potential reasons for bladder irrigation, option C directly addresses the immediate concern of preventing catheter occlusion by blood clots post-TURP surgery.
The Foley Family is caring for their youngest child, Justin, who is suffering from tetralogy of Fallot. Which of the following are defects associated with this congenital heart condition?
- A. Aorta exits from the right ventricle, pulmonary artery exits from the left ventricle, and two noncommunicating circulations
- B. Ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, pulmonic stenosis (PS), and right ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Coarctation of aorta, aortic valve stenosis, mitral valve stenosis, and patent ductus arteriosus
- D. Tricuspid valve atresia, atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, and hypoplastic right ventricle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart condition characterized by four specific defects: