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A client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL has a pressure ulcer. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
- B. Consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status
- C. Administer a protein supplement
- D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL and a pressure ulcer is to consult a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status. Adequate nutrition is essential for wound healing. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance is important but not the first priority in this situation. Administering a protein supplement can be considered after dietary evaluation. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the primary intervention for addressing a pressure ulcer related to low albumin levels.
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What is the most appropriate response when a client wants to discontinue dialysis?
- A. Ask the client why they want to discontinue.
- B. Instruct the client to focus on self-care.
- C. Offer to call the provider to cancel dialysis.
- D. Seek clarification and establish understanding.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client expresses the desire to discontinue dialysis, the most appropriate response is to seek clarification and establish understanding. This approach allows the healthcare provider to comprehend the client's concerns, provide support, and engage in a collaborative decision-making process. Choice A, asking the client why they want to discontinue, can be perceived as confrontational and may not effectively address the underlying reasons. Instructing the client to focus on self-care (Choice B) may overlook the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. Offering to call the provider to cancel dialysis (Choice C) does not actively involve the client in the decision-making process or address their concerns adequately.
A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent venous thromboembolism?
- A. Instruct the client to perform ankle pumps
- B. Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed
- C. Maintain the client in a prone position
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent venous thromboembolism in a postoperative client following hip replacement is to administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed. Anticoagulants help prevent blood clots from forming. Instructing the client to perform ankle pumps helps prevent blood clots by promoting circulation. Maintaining the client in a prone position can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombus formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate as tolerated also helps prevent venous thromboembolism by promoting blood flow and preventing stasis.
What is a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Edema
- C. Rapid heartbeat
- D. Confusion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to pump effectively leads to fluid backing up into the lungs, causing difficulty breathing. Edema (swelling), rapid heartbeat, and confusion are more commonly associated with other conditions or right-sided heart failure. Edema is often seen in right-sided heart failure due to fluid accumulation in the body, rapid heartbeat can be a general sign of heart issues, and confusion is more related to decreased brain perfusion in severe heart failure cases.
What is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Irritability
- C. Hypotension
- D. Decreased oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions accumulate in the airway, it can lead to discomfort and irritability in the client. Bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased oxygen saturation are usually later signs of inadequate airway clearance and oxygenation. Bradycardia may indicate severe hypoxia, while hypotension and decreased oxygen saturation are consequences of prolonged airway obstruction.
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. After drawing up the medication, the nurse accidentally brushes the needle on the counter's surface. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prepare a new dose of insulin injection
- B. Administer the insulin as it is
- C. Wipe the needle with an alcohol swab
- D. Ask the provider for guidance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to prepare a new dose of insulin injection. Accidentally brushing the needle on a contaminated surface can lead to infection risk. Administering the insulin as it is or just wiping the needle with an alcohol swab would not be sufficient to eliminate the risk of infection. Asking the provider for guidance is not necessary in this situation as the nurse can independently take the appropriate action to ensure patient safety.