A client with ascites and peripheral edema is at risk for impaired skin integrity. To prevent skin breakdown, the nurse should:
- A. Institute range-of-motion (ROM) exercise every 4 hours.
- B. Massage the abdomen once a shift.
- C. Use an alternating air pressure mattress.
- D. Elevate the lower extremities.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An alternating air pressure mattress (C) prevents pressure ulcers in clients with edema. ROM exercises (A) and elevation (D) are helpful but secondary. Abdominal massage (B) is not indicated.
You may also like to solve these questions
The emergency department (ED) nurse is caring for a client with acetaminophen toxicity. The nurse anticipates a prescription for which medication?
- A. acetylcysteine
- B. deferoxamine mesylate
- C. succimer
- D. flumazenil
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity, protecting the liver by restoring glutathione levels.
Which intervention is most appropriate for a client with impaired mobility due to a neurological condition?
- A. Encourage bed rest.
- B. Provide assistive devices.
- C. Limit physical therapy.
- D. Restrict fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Providing assistive devices promotes safe mobility and independence for a client with impaired mobility.
Which symptom suggests bladder cancer recurrence?
- A. Painful urination.
- B. Frequent urination.
- C. Hematuria.
- D. Nocturia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hematuria is a common sign of bladder cancer recurrence.
A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be:
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Inform the physician
- C. Administer oxygen
- D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea, tingling, and dyspnea during an arteriogram suggest a possible allergic reaction to the contrast dye or other complications (e.g., vasovagal response). The nurse should immediately inform the physician to evaluate and manage the situation. Administering epinephrine or oxygen requires a physician's order, and reassuring the client is inappropriate until the issue is addressed.
A 28-year-old client with cancer is afraid of experiencing a febrile reaction associated with blood transfusions. He asks the nurse if this will happen to him. The nurse's best response is which of the following?
- A. Febrile reactions are caused when antibodies on the surface of blood cells in the transfusion are directed against antigens of the recipient.
- B. Febrile reactions can usually be prevented by administering antipyretics and antihistamines before the start of the transfusion.
- C. Febrile reactions are rarely immune-mediated and can be a sign of hemolytic transfusion.
- D. Febrile reactions primarily occur within 15 minutes after initiation of the transfusion and can occur during the blood transfusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Febrile reactions can often be prevented with premedication like antipyretics and antihistamines, which is a reassuring and accurate response for the client.
Nokea