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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has asthma and new prescriptions for cromolyn and albuterol, both by nebulizer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will be sure to take the albuterol before taking the cromolyn.
- B. I will take both medications at the same time.
- C. I will take the cromolyn before taking albuterol.
- D. I will take the medications in any order.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will be sure to take the albuterol before taking the cromolyn." This is because albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps to open up the airways quickly, providing immediate relief during an asthma attack. Cromolyn, on the other hand, is a mast cell stabilizer that helps to prevent asthma attacks but does not provide immediate relief. Taking albuterol first allows for quick relief, followed by cromolyn for long-term prevention.
Choice B is incorrect as taking both medications at the same time may not allow for the full effectiveness of each drug. Choice C is incorrect as cromolyn should be taken before albuterol to allow time for it to take effect. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific order in which these medications should be taken for optimal results.
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A nurse is reviewing the EKG strip of a client who has prolonged vomiting. Which of the following abnormalities on the client's EKG should the nurse interpret as a sign of hypokalemia?
- A. Flat T wave
- B. Prominent U wave
- C. ST elevation
- D. Wide QRS complex
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prominent U wave. Hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, can cause the U wave to become more prominent on an EKG strip. This is due to delayed repolarization of the ventricles. A flat T wave (choice A) is typically associated with ischemia or infarction. ST elevation (choice C) is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. A wide QRS complex (choice D) is indicative of conduction abnormalities. Choices E, F, and G are not relevant to the interpretation of hypokalemia on an EKG strip.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings for a client who developed fat embolism syndrome (FES) following a fracture. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased serum calcium level
- B. Increased potassium level
- C. Decreased white blood cell count
- D. Increased serum albumin level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum calcium level. In fat embolism syndrome (FES), fat droplets enter the bloodstream and can affect various organs. One of the common complications is hypocalcemia due to the binding of calcium to the fatty acids, leading to decreased serum calcium levels. This can result in symptoms such as confusion, tetany, and seizures. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Increased potassium level is not typically associated with FES. C: Decreased white blood cell count is not a common finding in FES. D: Increased serum albumin level is not related to FES.
A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that slows down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia as an adverse effect. This occurs because atenolol blocks the action of adrenaline on the heart, causing the heart to beat slower. Hyperglycemia (A) is not a common adverse effect of atenolol; in fact, it may even lower blood sugar levels slightly. Tachycardia (B) and hypertension (C) are the opposite effects of atenolol, as it is used to treat high blood pressure and reduce heart rate. Therefore, these would not be expected adverse effects.
The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The nurse reviews the provider's orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Carvedilol
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carvedilol. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker, which can exacerbate asthma symptoms in clients with a history of asthma due to its potential bronchoconstrictive effects. Furosemide (A), Spironolactone (C), and Lisinopril (D) are commonly used in heart failure management and do not pose a significant risk for clients with asthma. It is crucial to avoid medications that can worsen respiratory function in clients with a history of asthma to prevent complications.
While assessing a client who is receiving continuous IV therapy via his left forearm, a nurse notes that the site is red, swollen, and painful and that the surrounding tissues are hard. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Discontinue the existing IV line
- B. Apply warm compresses
- C. Elevate the extremity
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to discontinue the existing IV line first. This is crucial because the client is exhibiting signs of infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage and complications. By removing the IV line, further damage can be prevented. Applying warm compresses or elevating the extremity may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the condition. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but should not be the first step in this situation.