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A client with cancer is receiving palliative care. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of palliative care?
- A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.
- B. Palliative care is only provided when curative treatment is no longer an option.
- C. Palliative care includes interventions to prolong life at all costs.
- D. Palliative care provides support for both the client and their family.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses like cancer. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care can be provided alongside curative treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to prolong life at all costs; it focuses on improving the quality of life. Choice D is partially correct but does not fully capture the essence of palliative care, which includes symptom management and holistic support for the client and their family.
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During a health promotion program on testicular cancer, a community health nurse finds that more information is necessary if a community member says which of the following is a sign of testicular cancer?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Back pain
- C. Painless testicular swelling
- D. Heavy sensation in the scrotum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Alopecia.' Alopecia is not a sign of testicular cancer; it can occur due to chemotherapy. Back pain (choice B) is not typically associated with testicular cancer. Painless testicular swelling (choice C) and a heavy sensation in the scrotum (choice D) can be actual signs of testicular cancer, so they do not require further information.
A client is receiving rituximab. What assessment by the nurse takes priority?
- A. Blood pressure.
- B. Temperature.
- C. Oral mucous membranes.
- D. Pain.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving rituximab, the nurse's priority assessment should be monitoring the blood pressure. Rituximab can lead to infusion-related reactions, such as hypotension. Therefore, assessing the client's blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage any potential adverse reactions promptly. While monitoring temperature, oral mucous membranes, and pain are essential aspects of care, they are not the priority when a client is receiving rituximab.
A patient with multiple myeloma has developed hypercalcemia. What symptoms should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. In patients with multiple myeloma who have developed hypercalcemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial. Hypercalcemia can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Choice A, increased heart rate, is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or anxiety rather than hypercalcemia. Choice B, decreased urine output, is commonly seen in conditions leading to acute kidney injury rather than hypercalcemia. Choice D, hypertension, is not a typical symptom of hypercalcemia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like uncontrolled high blood pressure.
A patient with myelofibrosis is being treated with ruxolitinib. What should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this treatment?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- D. Spleen size
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit is essential to assess the effectiveness of ruxolitinib in treating myelofibrosis. Ruxolitinib works by inhibiting JAK1 and JAK2, which are involved in the signaling pathways that regulate blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels can provide valuable information on how well the drug is managing the disease. Blood pressure, white blood cell count, and spleen size are not direct indicators of the treatment's effectiveness in myelofibrosis.
The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?
- A. To examine the testicles while lying down
- B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
- C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
- D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.