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A nurse is teaching a client with a history of calcium oxalate kidney stones. What advice should be given?
- A. Limit fluid intake to 1 L per day.
- B. Drink 3 L of fluid every day.
- C. Increase calcium intake.
- D. Avoid all citrus juices.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drink 3 L of fluid every day. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent the formation of kidney stones by diluting the urine and reducing the concentration of minerals like calcium oxalate. Adequate hydration promotes frequent urination, which helps flush out these minerals. Limiting fluid intake (choice A) can lead to concentrated urine and increase the risk of stone formation. Increasing calcium intake (choice C) can actually help prevent calcium oxalate stones, as calcium binds with oxalate in the intestines, reducing its absorption. Avoiding all citrus juices (choice D) is unnecessary, as they do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine output. This can lead to hypokalemia, which can be dangerous in a client with heart failure as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. The nurse should monitor the client's potassium levels regularly to prevent this adverse effect.
Summary of other choices:
B: Hyperkalemia - Furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia.
C: Hypernatremia - Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to sodium loss, not hypernatremia.
D: Hypertension - Furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension, so it is not an adverse effect of the medication in this scenario.
A nurse is caring for a client who recently had surgery for insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?
- A. Electrocardiogram
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. MRI of the chest
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. MRI of the chest should be clarified because the magnetic field can interfere with the function of the pacemaker, potentially causing harm to the patient. An electrocardiogram, chest X-ray, and echocardiogram are safe imaging tests that do not interfere with the pacemaker. Therefore, D is the correct answer that should be clarified to ensure patient safety.
A nurse is teaching a middle-aged client about hypertension. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Calcium channel blockers are the first choice for hypertension.
- B. Beta-blockers are the first type of medication for hypertension.
- C. ACE inhibitors are the first choice for hypertension.
- D. Diuretics are the first type of medication to control hypertension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diuretics are the first-line treatment for hypertension as they reduce blood volume, lowering blood pressure.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a pressure ulcer. The nurse should identify an elevation in which of the following laboratory values as an indication that the client has developed an infection?
- A. Serum albumin level
- B. WBC count
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. BUN
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: WBC count. An elevation in WBC count indicates an immune response to infection, as white blood cells increase to fight off pathogens. In the context of a pressure ulcer, an elevated WBC count suggests the presence of infection due to the body's response to foreign organisms. Other choices are not directly related to infection in this scenario. Serum albumin level (A) reflects nutritional status, serum potassium level (C) indicates electrolyte balance, and BUN (D) reflects kidney function. Hence, they are not specific indicators of infection in a client with a pressure ulcer.
A nurse explains to a client why two chest tubes are in place after a lobectomy. What is the lower chest tube for?
- A. Draining air from the pleural space
- B. Draining blood and fluid from the pleural space
- C. Providing oxygen directly to the lungs
- D. Preventing lung collapse
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The lower chest tube after a lobectomy is to drain blood and fluid from the pleural space. This is crucial to prevent complications such as fluid accumulation, which can lead to infection or impaired lung expansion. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Draining air is usually done by the upper chest tube, C) Providing oxygen does not require a chest tube, and D) Preventing lung collapse is more related to the function of the upper chest tube in maintaining negative pressure in the pleural space.