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A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
- B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
- C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
- D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula. A bruit and thrill indicate proper blood flow through the AV fistula, essential for successful hemodialysis. Absence of these sounds can indicate AV fistula malfunction, leading to inadequate dialysis. Redness, pain, and swelling are common complications of AV fistula placement but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or accompanied by other symptoms like fever or pus drainage. Reporting the absence of a bruit or thrill promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent complications and ensure effective dialysis.
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In evaluating a 10-year-old child with meningitis suspected of having diabetes insipidus, which finding is indicative of diabetes insipidus?
- A. Decreased urine specific gravity.
- B. Elevated urine glucose.
- C. Decreased serum potassium.
- D. Increased serum sodium.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urine specific gravity. In diabetes insipidus, there is an inability to concentrate urine, leading to decreased urine specific gravity. This is due to the decreased production or action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). As a result, the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water efficiently, causing dilute urine with low specific gravity.
Incorrect choices:
B: Elevated urine glucose is more indicative of diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus.
C: Decreased serum potassium is not a typical finding in diabetes insipidus.
D: Increased serum sodium can occur due to dehydration from excessive urination in diabetes insipidus, but it is not directly indicative of the condition.
A recently widowed middle-aged female client presents to the psychiatric clinic for evaluation and tells the nurse that she has 'little reason to live.' She describes one previous suicidal gesture and admits to having a gun in her home. To maintain the client's confidentiality and to help ensure her safety, which action is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to remove the gun from her possession.
- B. Notify the client's healthcare provider of the availability of the weapon.
- C. Contact a person of the client's choosing to remove the weapon from the home.
- D. Call the local police department and have the weapon removed from the home.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Contact a person of the client's choosing to remove the weapon from the home. This option respects the client's autonomy and confidentiality while ensuring her safety.
1. Encouraging the client to remove the gun (Option A) may not guarantee immediate action and could potentially escalate the situation.
2. Notifying the client's healthcare provider (Option B) could breach confidentiality and may not result in immediate intervention.
3. Calling the police (Option D) could lead to a loss of trust and may not be necessary if the situation can be handled discreetly by someone the client trusts.
Therefore, option C is the best course of action as it respects the client's autonomy, maintains confidentiality, and ensures prompt removal of the weapon to enhance the client's safety.
A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Urine output of 100 mL/hour.
- B. Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute.
- D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. Elevated ICP can lead to increased intracranial pressure, which can further damage brain tissue and impair cerebral perfusion. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent further brain damage.
A: Urine output of 100 mL/hour is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition.
C: Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate concern.
D: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg is within the normal range for most adults and does not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart failure. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Serum sodium - Furosemide may cause hyponatremia, but it is less critical compared to hypokalemia in a client with heart failure.
C: Serum calcium - Furosemide does not directly affect calcium levels significantly in most cases.
D: Serum magnesium - While furosemide can cause hypomagnesemia, monitoring potassium is more essential in this scenario due to its impact on cardiac function.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
- D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. The rationale is that metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further decrease heart rate. With a low apical pulse of 58 beats/minute, administering metoprolol can potentially cause bradycardia or further slow down the heart rate to dangerous levels. Holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider allows for further assessment and potential adjustment of the dosage or consideration of alternative treatments.
Incorrect choices:
A: Administering the medication as prescribed can lead to bradycardia and potential harm to the client.
C: Giving half the prescribed dose and rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes can still lead to further bradycardia and potential harm.
D: Administering the medication and then rechecking the pulse in 30 minutes is not appropriate as the initial pulse rate is already low, and waiting to recheck could lead to adverse effects before intervention.