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A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate.
- B. Encourage a diet high in potassium.
- C. Provide potassium supplements.
- D. Restrict sodium intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the cardiac membrane in hyperkalemia, preventing dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. It does not lower potassium levels but helps protect the heart.
B: Encouraging a diet high in potassium would worsen hyperkalemia.
C: Providing potassium supplements would further elevate potassium levels.
D: Restricting sodium intake does not directly address hyperkalemia.
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A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output.
- B. Improved hemoglobin levels.
- C. Decreased blood pressure.
- D. Stable potassium levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. This is the desired outcome in a client with chronic renal failure, as it helps alleviate anemia.
Choice A is incorrect because increased urine output is not a direct indicator of erythropoietin effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as erythropoietin does not directly impact blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because stable potassium levels are not a primary outcome of erythropoietin therapy in chronic renal failure.
A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Eat a light breakfast on the day of the procedure.
- B. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution before the procedure.
- C. Avoid all liquids for 24 hours before the procedure.
- D. You can continue taking your blood thinners until the day of the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because drinking a bowel preparation solution helps clear the colon for better visualization during the colonoscopy. This step is crucial to ensure accuracy of the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as the client should have a clear liquid diet the day before the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as hydration is important, but clear liquids are allowed. Choice D is incorrect because blood thinners may need to be adjusted prior to the procedure to reduce bleeding risk.
The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Increased respiratory rate.
- B. Decreased oxygen saturation.
- C. Clear lung sounds.
- D. Elevated white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate effective treatment as they suggest improved air exchange and resolution of lung congestion caused by pneumonia. Increased respiratory rate (A) and decreased oxygen saturation (B) are signs of respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (D) indicates ongoing infection, not effectiveness of treatment. Therefore, clear lung sounds are the best indicator of treatment effectiveness in bacterial pneumonia.
A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?
- A. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- B. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
- C. Folic acid
- D. Vitamin D
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, causing neurological symptoms like confusion and unsteady gait (Wernicke's encephalopathy). Thiamine is crucial for brain function and alcohol interferes with its absorption. Vitamin B12 (choice B) deficiency can also cause neurological symptoms but is less likely in this case. Folic acid (choice C) deficiency can lead to anemia and neural tube defects, not directly related to the symptoms described. Vitamin D (choice D) deficiency typically presents with bone pain and muscle weakness, not confusion and gait issues.
A client with Addison's disease is being treated with fludrocortisone (Florinef). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypernatremia.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypernatremia. Fludrocortisone is a mineralocorticoid that promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to an increase in sodium levels. Addison's disease involves low levels of cortisol and aldosterone, so fludrocortisone is used to replace aldosterone. Monitoring for hypernatremia is crucial to prevent complications like hypertension and fluid retention. Hyperkalemia (A) is not expected due to the drug's potassium-excreting effect. Hyponatremia (B) is unlikely as the drug promotes sodium retention. Hypocalcemia (D) is not directly related to fludrocortisone therapy.