Nokea
A client with Graves' disease is treated with radioactive iodine (RAI) in the form of sodium iodide 131I. Which of the following statements by the nurse will explain to the client how the drug works?
- A. The radioactive iodine stabilizes the thyroid hormone levels before a thyroidectomy.'
- B. The radioactive iodine reduces uptake of thyroxine and thereby improves your condition.'
- C. The radioactive iodine slows your body's production of thyroid hormones.'
- D. The radioactive iodine destroys thyroid tissue and thyroid hormones are no longer produced.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Radioactive iodine (RAI) works by destroying thyroid tissue, which reduces or eliminates the production of thyroid hormones, treating hyperthyroidism in Graves' disease.
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Three hours ago a client was thrown from a car into a ditch, and he is now admitted to the emergency department in a stable condition with vital signs within normal limits, alert and oriented with good coloring and an open fracture of the right tibia. For which signs and symptoms should the nurse be especially alert?
- A. Infection
- B. Deformity
- C. Shock
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An open fracture increases the risk of infection and deformity, but shock is a critical systemic complication that can develop rapidly due to blood loss or pain, requiring vigilant monitoring.
A client with a spinal fusion is using a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) unit for pain relief. Which client statement indicates correct use?
- A. I'll place the electrodes directly over the incision.'
- B. I'll adjust the intensity to a comfortable level.'
- C. I'll use the unit for 12 hours continuously.'
- D. I'll apply the unit to my lower legs.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adjusting the TENS unit to a comfortable intensity ensures effective and safe pain relief.
The nurse is caring for a client who has influenza. Which of the following prescriptions may be prescribed by the primary healthcare provider (PHCP)?
- A. Valacyclovir
- B. Oseltamivir
- C. Azithromycin
- D. Omeprazole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza. Choice A (valacyclovir) is for herpes, Choice C (azithromycin) is an antibiotic, and Choice D (omeprazole) is a proton pump inhibitor, none of which treat influenza.
The client attends two sessions with the dietitian to learn about diet modifications to minimize gastroesophageal reflux. The teaching would be considered successful if the client says that she will decrease her intake of which of the following foods?
- A. Fats.
- B. High-sodium foods.
- C. Carbohydrates.
- D. High-calcium foods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Decreasing fat intake is key to managing GERD, as fatty foods relax the lower esophageal sphincter and delay gastric emptying, worsening reflux.
An older adult client in stage 2 of Parkinson's disease is being discharged with cellulitis of the right lower extremity. Which of the following nursing diagnoses will guide the discharge teaching? Select all that apply.
- A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased cardiac output.
- B. Impaired skin integrity related to barrier changes of the skin.
- C. Risk for injury related to environmental hazards.
- D. Impaired verbal communication related to dysarthria.
- E. Security intolerance related to painful lower extremity.
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: Cellulitis causes impaired skin integrity due to infection and inflammation. Parkinson's increases fall risk, supporting risk for injury. Other options are less directly related.