Nokea
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Urine Ketones
- B. Rapid plasma reagin
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Urine culture
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Urine ketones should be anticipated as a laboratory test for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum because it helps assess the severity of dehydration and malnutrition, which are common complications of this condition. Choice B, rapid plasma reagin, is a test for syphilis and is not relevant to hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, prothrombin time, is a measure of blood clotting function and is not typically indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice D, urine culture, is used to identify bacteria in the urine and is not directly related to assessing dehydration and malnutrition in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum.
You may also like to solve these questions
A primigravida arrives at the observation unit of the maternity unit because she thinks she is in labor. The nurse applies the external fetal heart monitor and determines that the fetal heart rate is 140 beats per minute and contractions are occurring irregularly every 10 to 15 minutes. Which assessment finding confirms to the nurse that the client is not in labor at this time?
- A. Membranes are intact.
- B. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities.
- C. Contractions decrease with walking.
- D. Cervical dilation is 1 centimeter.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Contractions that decrease with walking are typically indicative of false labor, as true labor contractions tend to intensify with activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A) Intact membranes are a normal finding and do not confirm the absence of labor. B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities is a sign of fluid retention and not directly related to labor status. D) Cervical dilation of 1 centimeter indicates some cervical changes, but it alone does not confirm active labor.
A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?
- A. Abruptio Placenta
- B. Placenta Previa
- C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
- D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.
At 12 hours after the birth of a healthy infant, the mother complains of feeling constant vaginal pressure. The nurse determines the fundus is firm and at midline with moderate rubra lochia. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Check the suprapubic area for distention
- B. Inform the client to take a warm sitz bath
- C. Inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas
- D. Apply a fresh pad and check in 1 hour
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the mother's complaint of constant vaginal pressure along with a firm fundus and moderate rubra lochia indicates a potential perineal injury or hematoma. The correct action for the nurse to take is to inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas to assess for any signs of trauma or hematoma. Checking the suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) is not the priority here since the symptoms suggest a perineal issue. Advising a warm sitz bath (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen any existing trauma. Applying a fresh pad and checking in 1 hour (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate assessment of the perineal and rectal areas in response to the reported symptoms.
Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome produce:
- A. less estrogen than normal males.
- B. less testosterone than normal males.
- C. less adenine than normal males.
- D. less thymine than normal males.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY), leading to reduced production of testosterone, the primary male sex hormone. This deficiency can result in various physical and developmental characteristics associated with the syndrome. Estrogen levels may actually be relatively elevated due to the imbalance between testosterone and estrogen. Choices C and D are incorrect as adenine and thymine are nucleotide bases found in DNA and are not related to hormone production.
A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
- C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
- D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.