Nokea
A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
- B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
- C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
- D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to poor appetite and weight loss.
2. Eating foods that appeal to taste can help the client consume more calories and nutrients.
3. Balancing meals may not be a priority during hyperemesis gravidarum as the focus is on maintaining adequate nutrition.
4. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's nutritional needs or coping with hyperemesis gravidarum.
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A nurse is teaching clients in a prenatal class about the importance of taking folic acid during pregnancy. The nurse should instruct the clients to consume an adequate amount of folic acid from various sources to prevent which of the following fetal abnormalities?
- A. Neural tube defect
- B. Trisomy 21
- C. Cleft lip
- D. Atrial septal defect
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neural tube defect. Folic acid is essential for proper neural tube development in the fetus, preventing abnormalities like spina bifida. Consuming an adequate amount of folic acid before and during pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. Trisomy 21 (choice B) is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not influenced by folic acid intake. Cleft lip (choice C) and atrial septal defect (choice D) have multifactorial causes and are not directly prevented by folic acid consumption.
When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)
- A. Gonorrhea
- B. Chlamydia
- C. HIV
- D. All of the Above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. All three infections - Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, and HIV - can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Antibiotics can be administered for Gonorrhea and Chlamydia, while antiretroviral medications can be given for HIV. Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the risk of vertical transmission. The other choices are incorrect because each infection listed can be effectively managed during labor or post-birth, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.
A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Reduced menstrual flow
- B. Breast tenderness
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. This is because shortness of breath can indicate a potentially serious side effect like a blood clot, which is a rare but serious complication associated with oral contraceptives. Reduced menstrual flow (A) is a common side effect and not typically a cause for concern. Breast tenderness (B) is a common but generally benign side effect of oral contraceptives. Increased appetite (D) is also a common side effect but not typically a sign of a serious complication. Therefore, the healthcare provider should emphasize the importance of reporting shortness of breath promptly.
A client is to receive oxytocin to augment labor. Which finding contraindicates the initiation of the oxytocin infusion and should be reported to the provider?
- A. Late decelerations
- B. Moderate variability of the FHR
- C. Cessation of uterine dilation
- D. Prolonged active phase of labor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Late decelerations indicate fetal distress, suggesting compromised oxygenation. Starting oxytocin can further stress the fetus, worsening decelerations. Report to prevent harm. B is incorrect as moderate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being. C is incorrect as cessation of uterine dilation may indicate uterine hyperstimulation, not fetal distress. D is incorrect as prolonged active labor phase alone doesn't necessarily contraindicate oxytocin, but it may require monitoring.
During an assessment, a client at 26 weeks of gestation presents with which of the following clinical manifestations that should be reported to the provider?
- A. Leukorrhea
- B. Supine hypotension
- C. Periodic numbness of the fingers
- D. Decreased urine output
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased urine output. At 26 weeks of gestation, decreased urine output can be a sign of potential complications like preeclampsia or dehydration, which require immediate medical attention to prevent harm to the mother and baby. Leukorrhea (choice A) is a common pregnancy symptom and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension (choice B) is a known issue in pregnancy but usually occurs later in the third trimester due to pressure on the vena cava when lying on the back. Periodic numbness of the fingers (choice C) can be related to carpal tunnel syndrome, which is common in pregnancy but not typically urgent at 26 weeks unless severe and persistent.