Nokea
A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Agranulocytosis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Methimazole, used to treat hyperthyroidism, can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in white blood cells. This condition increases the risk of infections and requires immediate medical attention. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of methimazole. Bradycardia (choice C) is unlikely as methimazole tends to have minimal effects on heart rate. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not associated with methimazole use.
You may also like to solve these questions
When selecting patient problems for the 4-year-old child with nephrosis, what should be a priority for the nurse?
- A. Impaired body image
- B. Skin impairment
- C. Nutritional deficit
- D. Injury
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Skin impairment. Nephrosis is characterized by gross edema, making skin care a priority. Skin impairment can result from the edema and needs close monitoring and management. While nutritional deficit and injury are important considerations in patient care, they are not the priority when dealing with a child with nephrosis. Impaired body image is not typically a priority in the immediate care of a young child with nephrosis.
The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Elevated serum amylase
- B. Decreased serum bilirubin
- C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. Decreased alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated serum amylase is the most indicative laboratory result of acute pancreatitis. In this condition, the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the leakage of amylase and lipase into the bloodstream. Elevated serum amylase levels are a classic finding in acute pancreatitis. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Decreased serum bilirubin, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and decreased alkaline phosphatase levels are not specific markers for acute pancreatitis.
Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?
- A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
- B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
- C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
- D. The child may not have had it for a long time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.
When conducting a class for parents about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), the nurse instructs the class that the infant should be placed in which position to sleep?
- A. Right side-lying
- B. Left side-lying
- C. Prone
- D. Supine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, supine. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their back, or supine, to sleep as it has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing infants on their right side, left side, or prone (on their stomach) respectively are not recommended sleeping positions due to the increased risk of SIDS associated with those positions.
A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client's admitting diagnosis?
- A. Jugular vein distention.
- B. Crackles in the lung bases.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Bounding peripheral pulses.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lung bases. Crackles in the lung bases are indicative of pulmonary congestion, which is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure leads to a backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli and resulting in crackles upon auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to left-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention can be seen in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema can be seen in both right and left-sided heart failure, and bounding peripheral pulses are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or anemia rather than specifically supporting left-sided heart failure.