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Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?
- A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
- B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
- C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
- D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
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The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Elevated serum amylase
- B. Decreased serum bilirubin
- C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. Decreased alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated serum amylase is the most indicative laboratory result of acute pancreatitis. In this condition, the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the leakage of amylase and lipase into the bloodstream. Elevated serum amylase levels are a classic finding in acute pancreatitis. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Decreased serum bilirubin, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and decreased alkaline phosphatase levels are not specific markers for acute pancreatitis.
How is gastroesophageal reflux (GER) typically treated in infants?
- A. By placing the infant NPO
- B. By thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal
- C. By placing the infant to sleep on the side
- D. By switching the infant to cow's milk
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is typically treated by thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal. This helps reduce reflux episodes by making the feedings heavier and less likely to come back up. Placing the infant NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the typical treatment for GER as infants need proper nutrition for growth. Placing the infant to sleep on the side is not recommended due to the risk of SIDS; infants should be placed on their back to sleep. Switching the infant to cow's milk is also not a treatment for GER, as cow's milk can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.
A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- C. Avoid salt substitutes containing potassium.
- D. Weigh yourself once a week.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss due to increased urinary excretion. Potassium-rich foods can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may not be suitable for all patients with heart failure, and a general restriction of 1 liter per day is not typically recommended. Avoiding salt substitutes containing potassium (choice C) is not a priority teaching point in this scenario. Weighing oneself once a week (choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status, but increasing potassium-rich foods is more directly related to the potential side effects of furosemide.
A client is currently receiving an infusion labeled as 5% dextrose injection 500 ml with heparin sodium 25,000 units at 14 mL/hour per pump. A prescription is received to change the rate of the infusion to heparin 1,000 units/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 16 ml/hour.
- B. 18 ml/hour.
- C. 20 ml/hour.
- D. 22 ml/hour.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To deliver 1,000 units/hour from a solution with 25,000 units in 500 ml, the rate should be set to 20 ml/hour. This is calculated by determining that the solution has 50 units/ml (25,000 units / 500 ml = 50 units/ml) and then dividing the required 1,000 units/hour by 50 units/ml, resulting in 20 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver heparin at 20 ml/hour. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated rate of 20 ml/hour.
A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client's admitting diagnosis?
- A. Jugular vein distention.
- B. Crackles in the lung bases.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Bounding peripheral pulses.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lung bases. Crackles in the lung bases are indicative of pulmonary congestion, which is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure leads to a backup of blood into the lungs, causing fluid leakage into the alveoli and resulting in crackles upon auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are less specific to left-sided heart failure. Jugular vein distention can be seen in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema can be seen in both right and left-sided heart failure, and bounding peripheral pulses are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or anemia rather than specifically supporting left-sided heart failure.