Nokea
Which additional congenital malformation is expected in 80% of infants with a myelomeningocele?
- A. Cerebral palsy
- B. Hydrocephalus
- C. Meningitis
- D. Neuroblastoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hydrocephalus is the additional congenital malformation expected in 80% of infants with a myelomeningocele. Myelomeningocele is commonly associated with hydrocephalus due to the abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain. Cerebral palsy (Choice A) is a motor disorder but not typically associated with myelomeningocele. Meningitis (Choice C) is an infection of the meninges and is not a congenital malformation. Neuroblastoma (Choice D) is a type of cancer that originates in immature nerve cells and is not a typical association with myelomeningocele.
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When conducting a class for parents about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), the nurse instructs the class that the infant should be placed in which position to sleep?
- A. Right side-lying
- B. Left side-lying
- C. Prone
- D. Supine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, supine. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their back, or supine, to sleep as it has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing infants on their right side, left side, or prone (on their stomach) respectively are not recommended sleeping positions due to the increased risk of SIDS associated with those positions.
A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Agranulocytosis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Methimazole, used to treat hyperthyroidism, can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in white blood cells. This condition increases the risk of infections and requires immediate medical attention. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of methimazole. Bradycardia (choice C) is unlikely as methimazole tends to have minimal effects on heart rate. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not associated with methimazole use.
A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?
- A. Milk
- B. Apples
- C. Carrots
- D. Rice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.
A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
- C. Avoid salt substitutes containing potassium.
- D. Weigh yourself once a week.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss due to increased urinary excretion. Potassium-rich foods can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may not be suitable for all patients with heart failure, and a general restriction of 1 liter per day is not typically recommended. Avoiding salt substitutes containing potassium (choice C) is not a priority teaching point in this scenario. Weighing oneself once a week (choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status, but increasing potassium-rich foods is more directly related to the potential side effects of furosemide.
Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?
- A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
- B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
- C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
- D. The child may not have had it for a long time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.