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A client with myelogenous leukemia is receiving an autologous bone marrow transplantation (BMT). What is the priority intervention that the nurse should implement when the bone marrow is repopulating?
- A. Administer sargramostim (Leukine, Prokine).
- B. Infuse PRBC and platelet transfusions.
- C. Give parenteral prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Maintain a protective isolation environment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain a protective isolation environment. During bone marrow repopulation after transplantation, the client is at high risk of infection due to compromised immune function. By maintaining a protective isolation environment, the nurse can minimize the risk of exposure to pathogens that could lead to infections. This intervention helps prevent potential complications and supports the client's recovery.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Administering sargramostim may enhance white blood cell production but does not directly address the risk of infection during bone marrow repopulation.
B: Infusing PRBC and platelet transfusions may be necessary for managing anemia and thrombocytopenia but does not address the priority of infection prevention.
C: Giving prophylactic antibiotics may be beneficial in some cases, but maintaining a protective isolation environment is the priority to reduce the risk of infection in this immunocompromised client.
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A male infant born at 30-weeks gestation at an outlying hospital is being prepared for transport to a Level IV neonatal facility. His respirations are 90/min, and his heart rate is 150 beats per minute. Which drug is the transport team most likely to administer to this infant?
- A. Ampicillin (Omnipen) 25 mg/kg slow IV push.
- B. Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) 2.5 mg/kg IV.
- C. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 20 micrograms/kg IV.
- D. Beractant (Survanta) 100 mg/kg per endotracheal tube.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Beractant (Survanta) 100 mg/kg per endotracheal tube. In this scenario, the infant's high respiratory rate indicates respiratory distress, likely due to immature lungs. Beractant is a pulmonary surfactant used to treat respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants by improving lung function and reducing the risk of complications. Administering beractant via endotracheal tube helps deliver the medication directly to the lungs.
Choice A (Ampicillin) is an antibiotic used for treating infections, not respiratory distress. Choice B (Gentamicin) is an antibiotic for infections, not respiratory distress. Choice C (Digoxin) is a cardiac medication for heart conditions, not respiratory distress. Therefore, only choice D addresses the respiratory distress issue in the preterm infant, making it the most appropriate drug for the transport team to administer in this case.
An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam.
- C. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.
- D. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam. This option is correct because the client's symptoms of nocturia, weak urine flow, and difficulty initiating urine stream suggest potential prostate issues, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). A digital rectal exam can help assess the size and condition of the prostate gland. It is an essential step in diagnosing BPH or other prostate conditions.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is not the priority in this case, as the client's symptoms are more indicative of a prostate issue rather than a urinary tract infection.
C: Maintaining a voiding diary may provide information on the frequency and volume of urine output, but it does not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
D: Instructing the client in cleansing techniques for the glans penis is not relevant to the reported symptoms and does not address the potential prostate issue.
A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale
- B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
- C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
- D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee. This is the appropriate action because the client presents with warm, edematous right knee and calf, indicating a potential vascular issue like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Assessing pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee helps evaluate circulation and nerve function, crucial in identifying complications of DVT. Glasgow Coma Scale (A) is used to assess consciousness, not relevant in this case. Assessing proximal pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis (C) may not provide accurate information about circulation distal to the knee. Evaluating the optic nerve (D) using an ophthalmoscope is unrelated to the client's presenting symptoms and medical history.
A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a foot ulcer. The nurse should recognize that which intervention is most critical in promoting healing of the foot ulcer?
- A. Strict control of blood glucose levels.
- B. Regular dressing changes with sterile technique.
- C. Application of antibiotic ointment.
- D. Hydrotherapy treatment daily.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Strict control of blood glucose levels is critical in promoting healing of foot ulcers in diabetic patients.
2. High blood glucose levels can impair wound healing by affecting circulation and immune response.
3. Maintaining normal glucose levels helps optimize tissue repair and prevent further complications.
4. Regular dressing changes (B) are important but not as critical as controlling blood glucose levels.
5. Application of antibiotic ointment (C) may be necessary for infected ulcers, but not the most critical intervention.
6. Hydrotherapy treatment (D) can help with wound cleansing, but it is not as essential as controlling blood glucose levels.
What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?
- A. Soft, spongy fundus.
- B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
- C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
- D. Unilateral lower leg pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pulse rate of 56 BPM. A normal finding for a primigravida client 12 hours postpartum would be a lower pulse rate as the body is recovering from childbirth. A pulse rate of 56 BPM is within the normal range for an adult.
A: Soft, spongy fundus would be a concerning finding as it could indicate uterine atony.
B: Saturating two perineal pads per hour would be excessive bleeding and could indicate postpartum hemorrhage.
D: Unilateral lower leg pain could be a sign of deep vein thrombosis, which is a potential complication postpartum.