LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions Related

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A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. The nurse listens to breath sounds, expecting to hear which breath sounds bilaterally?

  • A. Rhonchi
  • B. Crackles
  • C. Wheezes
  • D. Diminished breath sounds
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of pulmonary edema, which can occur as a complication of myocardial infarction. Crackles are typically heard in cases of pulmonary edema, characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs. These crackling sounds are heard during inspiration and sometimes expiration and are an indication of fluid-filled alveoli. Therefore, when assessing the client with these symptoms, the nurse would expect to hear crackles bilaterally. Rhonchi, which are coarse rattling respiratory sounds, are typically associated with conditions like bronchitis or pneumonia, not pulmonary edema. Wheezes are high-pitched musical sounds heard in conditions like asthma or COPD, not commonly present in pulmonary edema. Diminished breath sounds suggest decreased airflow or lung consolidation, not typical findings in pulmonary edema.

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A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

  • A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
  • B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
  • C. Platelet count
  • D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

  • A. Hypertension
  • B. Bradycardia
  • C. Hyperglycemia
  • D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any signs of slowing down, as it can indicate toxicity and potentially lead to serious complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly associated with other conditions or medications, hyperglycemia can be seen in conditions like diabetes or certain medications, and insomnia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.

The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

  • A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
  • B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
  • C. Complete blood count (CBC)
  • D. Fibrinogen level
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

Drugs that should be avoided in transgender men receiving testosterone therapy include:

  • A. Estrogen
  • B. Alpha blockers
  • C. Beta blockers
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because estrogen counteracts testosterone's masculinizing effects in transgender men, conflicting with therapy aims, so it's avoided. Choice B is incorrect as alpha blockers don't interfere with testosterone goals. Choice C is wrong because beta blockers are unrelated to therapy effects. Choice D is incorrect since only estrogen applies.

Therapeutic drug monitoring would be appropriate for which drug?

  • A. Acetaminophen
  • B. Phenytoin
  • C. Albuterol
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is correct because phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index, requiring monitoring of peak and trough levels to ensure efficacy and avoid toxicity, unlike broader-range drugs. Choice A is incorrect as acetaminophen's wide safety margin and short-term use don't typically need monitoring. Choice C is wrong because albuterol's inhaled route and rapid action don't require blood level checks. Choice D is incorrect since only phenytoin fits the monitoring profile.

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