Nokea
A client with neuromuscular disorder is receiving intensive nursing care. The client is likely to face the risk for impaired skin integrity. Which of the ff must the nurse ensure to prevent skin breakdown in the client?
- A. Prevent strenuous exercises by the client
- B. Use pressure relieving devices when the client is in bed
- C. Place the client in Fowler’s position
- D. Avoid giving daily baths with soaps to the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use pressure relieving devices when the client is in bed. This is because pressure ulcers are a common risk for individuals with neuromuscular disorders due to immobility. Pressure relieving devices such as special mattresses or cushions help redistribute pressure and prevent skin breakdown.
Incorrect choices:
A: Preventing strenuous exercises is not directly related to preventing skin breakdown in this case.
C: Placing the client in Fowler's position may be beneficial for respiratory issues but does not directly address skin integrity.
D: Avoiding daily baths with soaps may lead to poor hygiene and does not specifically address the risk of skin breakdown.
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Early this morning a client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, the nurse assesses the client, who has now nausea, a temperature of 105F (40.5C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Thyroid crisis
- D. Tetany
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thyroid crisis. These signs suggest thyroid storm, a life-threatening complication of thyroid surgery. The high fever, tachycardia, and restlessness are classic symptoms. Thyroid crisis can lead to severe complications if not managed promptly.
A: Diabetic ketoacidosis typically presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fruity breath odor.
B: Hypoglycemia would present with symptoms like diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion.
D: Tetany is associated with hypocalcemia and presents with muscle cramps, spasms, and numbness.
A client who is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy is worried about having to wear a scarf around his neck after surgery. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in the care plan?
- A. Risk for impaired physical mobility due to surgery
- B. Ineffective denial related to poor coping mechanisms
- C. Disturbed body image related to the incision scar
- D. Risk of injury related to surgical outcomes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Disturbed body image related to the incision scar. This is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis as the client's concern about wearing a scarf around his neck post-surgery indicates a potential disturbance in body image. This diagnosis addresses the client's emotional response to physical changes, which is common in surgical patients.
Choice A is incorrect because impaired physical mobility is not directly related to the client's worry about wearing a scarf. Choice B is incorrect as ineffective denial does not directly address the client's specific concern about body image. Choice D is also incorrect as the risk of injury is not the primary issue in this scenario; it is more about the client's perception of their appearance post-surgery.
In summary, the client's worry about wearing a scarf post-surgery indicates a disturbance in body image, making choice C the most appropriate nursing diagnosis.
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
- A. Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns
- B. Activity-exercise pattern assessment
- C. General to specific assessment
- D. Problem-oriented assessment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. This type of assessment approach involves starting with a broad overview of the patient's condition and then narrowing down to specific details. In this scenario, the nurse begins by examining the surgical dressing, which is a specific aspect of the patient's condition, after which they can proceed to gather more detailed information about the drainage, wound healing, and any associated symptoms. This approach allows the nurse to systematically assess the patient's postoperative status and identify any potential issues.
A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive framework for organizing patient data, but it does not specifically address the sequence of assessment in this scenario.
B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity level and exercise habits, which is not the primary concern in this situation.
D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health problems, but it does not capture the systematic progression from general to specific assessment as seen in this scenario.
Postural Hypotension is A drop in systolic pressure less than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting.
- A. A drop in systolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting
- B. A drop in diastolic pressure less than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting
- C. A drop in diastolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because postural hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg or a drop in diastolic blood pressure of greater than 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing from a sitting or supine position. Therefore, a drop in systolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when changing from lying to sitting is indicative of postural hypotension.
Choice B is incorrect as postural hypotension is primarily defined by changes in systolic blood pressure, not diastolic. Choice C is incorrect because a drop in diastolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg is not the defining characteristic of postural hypotension. Choice D is not provided.
The physician orders cystoscopy and random biopsies of the bladder for a client who reports painless hematuria. Test results reveal carcinoma in situ in several bladder regions. To treat bladder cancer, the client will have a series of intravesical instillations of bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), administered 1 week apart. When teaching the client about BCG, the nurse should mention that this drug commonly causes:
- A. Renal calculi
- B. Hematuria
- C. Delayed ejaculation
- D. Impotence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematuria. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is commonly used in the treatment of bladder cancer. It works by stimulating the immune system to attack and destroy cancer cells in the bladder. One of the common side effects of BCG instillations is hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine. This can occur due to irritation of the bladder lining by the BCG solution, leading to inflammation and bleeding. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect so they are aware of what to expect during treatment.
A: Renal calculi - BCG therapy is not commonly associated with the formation of renal calculi.
C: Delayed ejaculation - Delayed ejaculation is not a common side effect of BCG therapy.
D: Impotence - Impotence is not a common side effect of BCG therapy.