Nokea
A client with partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?
- A. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound.
- B. Administer an analgesic.
- C. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
- D. Ensure the client's nutritional needs are met.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering an analgesic before whirlpool therapy is the priority intervention in this scenario. Whirlpool therapy for debridement can be painful for the client with partial-thickness burns. Administering an analgesic before the procedure helps manage pain during the debridement process, ensuring the client's comfort. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may be necessary after the whirlpool therapy but is not the immediate pre-transport intervention. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice C) and ensuring nutritional needs are met (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not specifically related to preparing the client for whirlpool therapy.
You may also like to solve these questions
What should be included in the therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia?
- A. Multivitamins
- B. Calcium
- C. Ferrous sulfate
- D. Iodine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ferrous sulfate. The therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia should include iron supplementation, specifically with ferrous sulfate. This helps to replenish the body's iron stores. Multivitamins (choice A) may contain iron, but iron supplementation is more direct and effective. Calcium (choice B) and iodine (choice D) are not typically part of the primary treatment for iron deficiency anemia.
The parents of a child suffering from depression ask the nurse what causes depression in children. Which answer is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. The causes of major depression are unknown.
- B. Major affective disorders in parents increase depression in children.
- C. Boys are more likely than girls to be depressed.
- D. The prevalence rate is higher in prepubescent children.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because while the exact causes of depression in children are not fully understood, research indicates that children are more likely to experience depression if their parents have a major affective disorder. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests that the causes of major depression are entirely unknown, which is not accurate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no conclusive evidence that boys are more likely than girls to be depressed. Choice D is incorrect as the prevalence rate of depression is not necessarily higher in prepubescent children specifically.
A client who has a history of unstable angina is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain.
- A. Chest pain relieved by rest.
- B. Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets.
- C. Chest pain occurring only with exertion.
- D. Chest pain lasting less than 5 minutes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
During a paracentesis, two liters of fluid are removed from the abdomen of a client with ascites. A drainage bag is placed, and 50 ml of straw-colored fluid drains within the first hour. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Palpate for abdominal distention
- B. Send fluid to the lab for analysis
- C. Continue to monitor the fluid output
- D. Clamp the drainage tube for 5 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuing to monitor the fluid output is the appropriate action in this situation. Monitoring the fluid output helps the nurse assess the client's ongoing response to the procedure and detect any sudden changes, such as increased or decreased drainage rate, which could indicate complications. Palpating for abdominal distention, sending fluid to the lab for analysis, or clamping the drainage tube are not necessary actions at this point, as the priority is to monitor the client's condition post-procedure.
A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Calculate total intake and output.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.