ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Related

Review ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet related questions and content

A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

  • A. Tardive dyskinesia.
  • B. Orthostatic hypotension.
  • C. Photosensitivity.
  • D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic known to cause extrapyramidal side effects, including tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements of the face and body. This side effect is a serious concern due to its potential to be irreversible. Monitoring for tardive dyskinesia is crucial in clients taking haloperidol to detect and manage symptoms promptly.

Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Orthostatic hypotension - This side effect is more commonly associated with other antipsychotic medications, particularly second-generation ones.
C: Photosensitivity - Haloperidol does not typically cause photosensitivity as a side effect.
D: Hyperglycemia - While some antipsychotic medications may lead to metabolic side effects like hyperglycemia, haloperidol is not typically associated with this specific side effect.

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A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?

  • A. Chorionic villus sampling under ultrasound.
  • B. Amniocentesis and fetal monitoring.
  • C. Ultrasonography and nonstress test.
  • D. Oxytocin challenge test and fetal heart rate monitoring.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ultrasonography and nonstress test. At 38 weeks gestation, a biophysical profile (BPP) is typically done to assess fetal well-being. Ultrasonography is used to evaluate fetal movements, tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. The nonstress test assesses fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement, indicating fetal well-being. Chorionic villus sampling (A) and amniocentesis (B) are invasive procedures not typically done as part of a routine BPP. Oxytocin challenge test (D) is not indicated in this scenario as it is used to assess placental function in high-risk pregnancies.

The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?

  • A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
  • B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
  • C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
  • D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate. The client is showing signs of fluid overload, indicated by tachypnea and bounding pulse. By decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate, the nurse can prevent further fluid overload while maintaining IV access. Discontinuing the IV and applying pressure (choice A) is not necessary unless there is a specific issue with the IV site. Increasing the rate of the current IV solution (choice C) would worsen the fluid overload. Changing the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline (choice D) at the same rate may not effectively address the fluid overload concern.

When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?

  • A. Are you allergic to any other medications?
  • B. How often have you taken penicillin in the past?
  • C. Is anyone else in your family allergic to penicillin?
  • D. What happens to you when you take penicillin?
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: Option D is the correct answer because it directly addresses the client's experience with penicillin, providing crucial details about the allergic reaction. By asking what happens when the client takes penicillin, the nurse gains specific information to assess the severity and type of allergic reaction. This helps in determining appropriate interventions and alternative medications. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not focus on gathering detailed information about the client's allergic reaction to penicillin. Option A is too broad, option B is not relevant to the current situation, and option C does not directly address the client's individual experience.

A client is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

  • A. Headache.
  • B. Fever.
  • C. Nuchal rigidity.
  • D. Seizures.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Seizures. Seizures in a patient with suspected meningitis indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent brain damage or herniation. Headache (A), fever (B), and nuchal rigidity (C) are common symptoms of meningitis but do not pose an immediate threat to life like seizures do. Addressing the seizures first is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.

What dietary advice should the nurse provide to help reduce the occurrence of hot flashes in a post-menopausal client?

  • A. Increase intake of spicy foods.
  • B. Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption.
  • C. Consume a high-protein diet.
  • D. Eat more dairy products.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit caffeine and alcohol consumption. Hot flashes can be triggered by stimulants like caffeine and alcohol. Limiting intake can help reduce their occurrence. Increasing spicy foods (A) can actually worsen hot flashes. High-protein diets (C) and consuming more dairy products (D) do not have a direct impact on hot flashes.

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