Nokea
A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital with the complaint of right knee pain for the past week. His right knee and calf are warm and edematous. He has a history of diabetes and arthritis. Which neurological assessment action should the nurse perform for this client?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale
- B. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee
- C. Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis proximal to the right knee
- D. Optic nerve using an ophthalmoscope
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee. This is the appropriate action because the client presents with warm, edematous right knee and calf, indicating a potential vascular issue like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Assessing pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis distal to the right knee helps evaluate circulation and nerve function, crucial in identifying complications of DVT. Glasgow Coma Scale (A) is used to assess consciousness, not relevant in this case. Assessing proximal pulses, paresthesia, and paralysis (C) may not provide accurate information about circulation distal to the knee. Evaluating the optic nerve (D) using an ophthalmoscope is unrelated to the client's presenting symptoms and medical history.
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A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?
- A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
- B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
- C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
- D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
Rationale:
1. The ECG rhythm shows regular narrow complex tachycardia, likely supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
2. Adenosine is the first-line medication for terminating SVT by blocking conduction through the AV node.
3. Adenosine is given rapidly as a bolus dose followed by a saline flush to ensure quick delivery to the heart.
4. Adenosine has a very short half-life, making it safe to use in this scenario.
Summary:
A: Magnesium is not the first-line treatment for SVT.
B: Heparin is not indicated for the management of SVT.
D: Synchronized cardioversion is reserved for unstable patients with hemodynamic compromise, not indicated for stable SVT.
An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam.
- C. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.
- D. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam. This option is correct because the client's symptoms of nocturia, weak urine flow, and difficulty initiating urine stream suggest potential prostate issues, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). A digital rectal exam can help assess the size and condition of the prostate gland. It is an essential step in diagnosing BPH or other prostate conditions.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is not the priority in this case, as the client's symptoms are more indicative of a prostate issue rather than a urinary tract infection.
C: Maintaining a voiding diary may provide information on the frequency and volume of urine output, but it does not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
D: Instructing the client in cleansing techniques for the glans penis is not relevant to the reported symptoms and does not address the potential prostate issue.
The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
- B. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
- C. Exophthalmos and tachycardia.
- D. Weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension. Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to low cortisol and aldosterone levels. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, causing melanin deposition. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, leading to sodium and water loss. Choice A is incorrect because Addison's disease does not typically present with hypertension or hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as exophthalmos and tachycardia are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common manifestations of Addison's disease.
An elderly client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted to the hospital. Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Elevated serum sodium level.
- B. Decreased brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level.
- C. Increased serum creatinine level.
- D. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, increased serum creatinine level. In CHF, the heart's reduced pumping ability can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in impaired kidney function. This can cause an elevation in serum creatinine level, indicating decreased kidney function. Elevated serum sodium level (A) is not typically seen in CHF, as patients often have fluid retention leading to dilutional hyponatremia. Decreased BNP level (B) is not expected in CHF, as BNP is released in response to increased ventricular stretching and volume overload. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels (D) are not directly related to CHF; they may be seen in conditions like dehydration or chronic hypoxia, but not specifically in CHF.
In evaluating a 10-year-old child with meningitis suspected of having diabetes insipidus, which finding is indicative of diabetes insipidus?
- A. Decreased urine specific gravity.
- B. Elevated urine glucose.
- C. Decreased serum potassium.
- D. Increased serum sodium.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urine specific gravity. In diabetes insipidus, there is an inability to concentrate urine, leading to decreased urine specific gravity. This is due to the decreased production or action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). As a result, the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water efficiently, causing dilute urine with low specific gravity.
Incorrect choices:
B: Elevated urine glucose is more indicative of diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus.
C: Decreased serum potassium is not a typical finding in diabetes insipidus.
D: Increased serum sodium can occur due to dehydration from excessive urination in diabetes insipidus, but it is not directly indicative of the condition.