Nokea
The healthcare provider is planning care for a non-potty-trained child with nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention provides the best means of determining fluid retention?
- A. Weigh the child daily.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for pitting edema.
- C. Measure the child's abdominal girth weekly.
- D. Weigh the child's wet diapers.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weigh the child daily. Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to determine fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome as it provides real-time data on fluid status. Weight gain is a key indicator of fluid retention in these patients. Observing lower extremities for pitting edema (B) is subjective and may not accurately reflect fluid status. Measuring abdominal girth weekly (C) may not provide timely information on fluid retention. Weighing wet diapers (D) does not give a comprehensive picture of total fluid retention and may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring.
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A client with myelogenous leukemia is receiving an autologous bone marrow transplantation (BMT). What is the priority intervention that the nurse should implement when the bone marrow is repopulating?
- A. Administer sargramostim (Leukine, Prokine).
- B. Infuse PRBC and platelet transfusions.
- C. Give parenteral prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Maintain a protective isolation environment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain a protective isolation environment. During bone marrow repopulation after transplantation, the client is at high risk of infection due to compromised immune function. By maintaining a protective isolation environment, the nurse can minimize the risk of exposure to pathogens that could lead to infections. This intervention helps prevent potential complications and supports the client's recovery.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Administering sargramostim may enhance white blood cell production but does not directly address the risk of infection during bone marrow repopulation.
B: Infusing PRBC and platelet transfusions may be necessary for managing anemia and thrombocytopenia but does not address the priority of infection prevention.
C: Giving prophylactic antibiotics may be beneficial in some cases, but maintaining a protective isolation environment is the priority to reduce the risk of infection in this immunocompromised client.
A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?
- A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
- B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
- C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
- D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
Rationale:
1. The ECG rhythm shows regular narrow complex tachycardia, likely supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
2. Adenosine is the first-line medication for terminating SVT by blocking conduction through the AV node.
3. Adenosine is given rapidly as a bolus dose followed by a saline flush to ensure quick delivery to the heart.
4. Adenosine has a very short half-life, making it safe to use in this scenario.
Summary:
A: Magnesium is not the first-line treatment for SVT.
B: Heparin is not indicated for the management of SVT.
D: Synchronized cardioversion is reserved for unstable patients with hemodynamic compromise, not indicated for stable SVT.
Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?
- A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
- B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
- C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
- D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the OB nurse's background in obstetrics makes them most suitable to care for a post-operative patient with an IV. This assignment aligns with the nurse's skill set and ensures safe and competent care. Choices B, C, and D involve medical-surgical conditions that may require specialized knowledge and skills beyond the OB nurse's expertise, potentially compromising patient care. Assigning the OB nurse to care for a post-operative patient with an IV is the most appropriate choice given the circumstances.
A client with cirrhosis of the liver is being cared for by the healthcare team. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client has developed hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Asterixis.
- B. Jaundice.
- C. Ascites.
- D. Splenomegaly.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asterixis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric syndrome associated with liver dysfunction. Asterixis, also known as liver flap, is a key clinical manifestation characterized by a flapping tremor of the hands when extended. This occurs due to impaired ammonia metabolism in the liver leading to neurotoxicity. Jaundice (B) is a sign of liver dysfunction but not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Ascites (C) is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, common in liver cirrhosis but not indicative of hepatic encephalopathy. Splenomegaly (D) is enlargement of the spleen, which can occur in cirrhosis but is not a direct sign of hepatic encephalopathy.
The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
- A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
- C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
- D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain medication as prescribed. This is the highest priority because acute pancreatitis is a painful condition, and managing pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain control also helps reduce stress on the pancreas and can aid in preventing complications.
Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels is important in diagnosing pancreatitis and assessing response to treatment, it is not the highest priority intervention.
Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral intake of clear liquids may exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms and lead to further complications.
Choice D is incorrect as assessing bowel sounds, while important for monitoring gastrointestinal function, is not the highest priority in the acute management of pancreatitis.