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A client with sepsis has a temperature of 40°C. Which dysrhythmia is most likely to occur in this client?
- A. Bradydysrhythmia
- B. Tachydysrhythmia
- C. Wolff-Parkinson-White dysrhythmia
- D. Long QT dysrhythmia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with sepsis and a temperature of 40°C is likely experiencing a systemic inflammatory response, which can lead to a variety of dysrhythmias. In this case, the client is more likely to develop a tachydysrhythmia (fast heart rate) due to the body's response to the infection. Sepsis can result in an increase in heart rate as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs in response to the inflammatory process. Tachydysrhythmias such as supraventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation are commonly observed in septic patients with high fevers.
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After being diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease, an adult patient asks if current children are at risk for developing the disorder. How should the nurse respond?
- A. The adult form of this disorder is rare and should not affect grown children
- B. The children should undergo genetic testing and screening for evidence of the disease
- C. Because the condition was just diagnosed, there is no risk of passing the condition on to any children
- D. The children would have developed symptoms of the disorder in utero or shortly after birth if they had inherited the defective gene
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that can be inherited by children if one or both parents have the gene mutation responsible for the condition. In cases where a parent has been diagnosed with PKD, their children are at risk of inheriting the faulty gene. As such, it is recommended for the children to undergo genetic testing and screening to identify any evidence of the disease early on. By identifying the gene mutation in the children, appropriate monitoring and management can be initiated, potentially leading to better outcomes and quality of life for the affected individuals. Therefore, genetic testing and screening are crucial in cases where there is a known genetic component to a disorder like PKD.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath. Which electrocardiogram finding indicates the client is at risk for an alteration in perfusion?
- A. P wave smooth and round
- B. Absent U wave
- C. PR interval 0.30 seconds
- D. ST segment isoelectric
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An isoelectric ST segment on an electrocardiogram can indicate myocardial ischemia or injury, which can lead to a decrease in perfusion to the heart muscle. This finding suggests an increased risk of inadequate blood flow to the heart, potentially resulting in further complications such as a myocardial infarction or altered perfusion to other organs. In a client with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath, identifying this ECG finding is crucial for early intervention and monitoring to prevent further deterioration in perfusion status.
The nurse is concerned that a client admitted for a total hip replacement is at risk for thrombus formation. Which assessment finding caused the nurse to draw this conclusion?
- A. Body mass index (BMI) 35.8
- B. Former cigarette smoker
- C. Blood pressure 132/88 mmHg
- D. Age 45 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A former cigarette smoker is at increased risk for thrombus formation due to the damage smoking causes to the blood vessels, increasing the likelihood of blood clots. Smoking can also contribute to inflammation and increased platelet activation, further promoting clot formation. This risk factor is particularly concerning in a client undergoing a total hip replacement surgery, as immobility and surgery itself can also increase the risk of blood clots forming. Monitoring and addressing this risk factor is important in preventing potential complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism in this client population. While the other assessment findings are important to consider for overall health, the former cigarette smoking status is specifically associated with thrombus formation in this scenario.
A patient with a compound, open fracture of the femur is scheduled for immediate surgery. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate in the immediate postoperative period?
- A. Risk for Falls
- B. Risk for Infection
- C. Impaired Transfer Ability
- D. Risk for Post-Trauma Syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Given that the patient has a compound, open fracture of the femur and is undergoing immediate surgery, the most critical nursing diagnosis in the immediate postoperative period would be the risk for infection. Open fractures are particularly susceptible to infection due to the exposure of the fracture site to external contaminants. Postoperative care should prioritize infection prevention measures like sterile dressing changes, administration of prophylactic antibiotics, and close monitoring for signs of infection such as increased pain, redness, swelling, or drainage from the wound. Mitigating the risk of infection is crucial to prevent complications and promote optimal healing of the fracture. While the other diagnoses are relevant, addressing the risk for infection takes precedence in this scenario.
A patient has been vomiting for 4 hours. Which hormone will increase secretion in response to the physiologic changes caused by the vomiting?
- A. ADH
- B. Renin
- C. Thyroxin
- D. Aldosterone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vomiting can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes. In response to these physiologic changes caused by vomiting, aldosterone secretion will increase. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that acts on the kidneys to increase reabsorption of sodium and water, helping to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte balance. By increasing aldosterone secretion, the body aims to retain more sodium and water to counteract the effects of vomiting and prevent dehydration.