Nokea
A client with stage IV bone cancer is admitted to the hospital for pain control. The client verbalizes continuous, severe pain of 8 on a 1 to 10 scale. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer opioid and non-opioid medication simultaneously
- B. Administer only opioid medication as prescribed.
- C. Encourage the client to practice relaxation techniques
- D. Delay medication administration until reassessment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Combining opioid and non-opioid medications provides more effective pain relief for severe cancer-related pain.
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An 8-month-old infant has a hypercyanotic spell while blood is being drawn. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Assess for neurologic defects
- B. Place the child in the knee-chest position
- C. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- D. Prepare family for imminent death
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first action is to place the infant in the knee-chest position. Blow-by oxygen may be indicated. Neurologic defects are unlikely. The child should be assessed for airway, breathing, and circulation. Often, calming the child and administering oxygen and morphine can alleviate the hypercyanotic spell.
A 4-month-old infant with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) has dropped from the 20th percentile to the 5th for weight. What will the nurse practitioner recommend?
- A. Adding solid foods to the infant's diet to increase caloric intake
- B. Fortifying breast milk to increase the number of calories per ounce
- C. Stopping breastfeeding and giving 30 kcal/ounce formula
- D. Supplementing breastfeeding with 24 kcal/ounce formula
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Infants with heart defects who have congestive heart failure (CHF) may need modification of formula or breast milk to increase calories. Fortifying breast milk is the first and best option.
A child aged 10 days has ambiguous genitalia:
- A. If a buccal smear is chromatin negative, there is a serious risk of an Addisonian crisis
- B. A raised urinary output of pregnanetriol would confirm a diagnosis of CAR
- C. The finding of the genotype 45 XO would reliably explain the anomaly
- D. If testicles were present in the 'labia', an acceptable explanation would be Klinefelter's syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A raised urinary pregnanetriol indicates congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAR). Chromatin-negative buccal smear suggests male genotype, and 45 XO is Turner syndrome, not related to ambiguous genitalia. Klinefelter's syndrome does not explain testicles in the labia.
These causes often cause secretory diarrhoea except:
- A. Lactose intolerance
- B. E. coli infection
- C. Congenital chloridorrhoea
- D. Blind loop syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because lactose intolerance causes osmotic diarrhoea, not secretory diarrhoea. The other options (b-e) are causes of secretory diarrhoea.
A 2-month-old male presents with tachycardia, dyspnea, tachypnea, and a gallop rhythm with no heart murmur. He was perfectly well until 1 day prior to the episode. The physical examination reveals a heart rate of 235, a temperature of 37.8°C, and a normal blood pressure with warm, well-perfused extremities. The most likely diagnosis is
- A. sepsis
- B. supraventricular tachycardia
- C. ingestion
- D. ventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Supraventricular tachycardia can cause rapid heart rates and heart failure in infants.