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A client with thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemia develops epistaxis. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Lie supine with his neck extended
- B. Sit upright, leaning slightly forward
- C. Blow his nose and then put lateral pressure on his nose
- D. Hold his nose while bending forward at the waist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sit upright, leaning slightly forward. This position helps to minimize blood flow to the head, reducing the risk of increased bleeding. It also prevents blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of aspiration.
A: Lying supine with the neck extended can increase pressure on the blood vessels in the head, potentially worsening the epistaxis.
C: Blowing the nose and putting lateral pressure can disrupt any clots that may have formed and increase bleeding.
D: Holding the nose while bending forward at the waist can lead to blood flowing down the throat and increase the risk of aspiration.
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The client with epilepsy is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/ml. Which of the following symptoms would be expected as a result of this laboratory result?
- A. Nystagmus
- B. No symptoms, because this is normal
- C. Tachycardia therapeutic level
- D. Slurred speech
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystagmus. A phenytoin blood level of 35 mcg/ml is above the therapeutic range (usually 10-20 mcg/ml). Excessive levels can lead to symptoms such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement commonly seen with phenytoin toxicity. Nystagmus is a known side effect of phenytoin overdose. Choices B and C are incorrect because a level of 35 mcg/ml is not within the normal therapeutic range, so symptoms would be expected. Choice D, Slurred speech, is not typically associated with phenytoin toxicity.
Which of the following nursing interventions is correctly categorized as collaborative?
- A. Administering medications as prescribed by the healthcare provider
- B. Ordering a low-sodium diet for a hypertensive client
- C. Providing health education about medication side effects
- D. Monitoring a client’s response to an intervention initiated by another healthcare professional
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring a client's response to an intervention initiated by another healthcare professional is a collaborative nursing intervention. This involves working together with other healthcare team members to assess the client's progress and adjust care as needed. It promotes continuity of care and ensures that the client's needs are met effectively.
A: Administering medications is typically an independent nursing intervention.
B: Ordering a low-sodium diet is within the scope of a nurse's independent practice.
C: Providing health education is often considered an independent nursing intervention unless it involves collaboration with other team members.
In summary, choice D is the correct answer as it exemplifies collaborative care within a healthcare team.
The nurse is caring for a client who’s hypoglycemic. This client will have a blood glucose level:
- A. Below 70mg/dl
- B. Between 120 and 180mg/dl
- C. Between 70 and 120mg/dl
- D. Over 180mg/dl
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Below 70mg/dl. Hypoglycemia is defined as a blood glucose level below 70mg/dl. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, shakiness, and sweating. Treating hypoglycemia involves administering fast-acting carbohydrates. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe blood glucose levels that are within the normal or hyperglycemic range, which are not indicative of hypoglycemia. It is essential for the nurse to recognize and promptly address hypoglycemia to prevent serious complications.
A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
- A. Related to visual field deficits
- B. Related to impaired balance
- C. Related to difficulty swallowing
- D. Related to psychomotor seizures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a cerebellar brain tumor can affect the client's coordination and balance due to its location in the brain responsible for fine motor movements. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and injuries. Visual field deficits (choice A) may contribute to the risk of injury but not as directly as impaired balance. Difficulty swallowing (choice C) and psychomotor seizures (choice D) are not directly related to the client's risk for injury due to a cerebellar brain tumor.
Blood and fluid loss from frequent diarrhea may cause hypovolemia and you can quickly assess volume depletion in Miss CC by:
- A. Measuring the quantity and specific gravity of her urine output
- B. Taking her blood pressure
- C. Comparing the patient’s present weight with her last weight
- D. Administering the oral water test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Comparing the patient’s present weight with her last weight. This is the most direct and reliable method to assess volume depletion due to fluid loss. By comparing the patient's current weight with her last weight, you can easily determine if there has been a significant decrease in weight indicating fluid loss and potential hypovolemia.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Measuring the quantity and specific gravity of her urine output - This method may provide some information about hydration status, but it is not as direct or reliable as comparing weight changes.
B: Taking her blood pressure - While blood pressure can indicate hypovolemia, it may not provide immediate insight into volume depletion caused by diarrhea.
D: Administering the oral water test - This test is not commonly used to assess volume depletion and may not be as effective or quick as comparing weight changes.