A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What is the best initial action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
- B. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice.
- C. Give the client a snack containing protein and carbohydrates.
- D. Encourage the client to rest until symptoms resolve.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best initial action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia is to give them 4 ounces of orange juice. Orange juice quickly raises blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic client. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is not the best initial action for hypoglycemia; it is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia cases. Giving a snack containing protein and carbohydrates is not as rapid as orange juice in raising blood glucose levels during hypoglycemia. Encouraging the client to rest until symptoms resolve does not address the immediate need to raise blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic state.
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When taking a history of a 3-year-old with neuroblastoma, what comment by the parents requires follow-up and is consistent with the diagnosis?
- A. The child has been listless and has lost weight.
- B. The urine is dark yellow and in small amounts.
- C. Clothes are becoming tighter across her abdomen.
- D. We notice muscle weakness and some unsteadiness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clothes becoming tighter across the abdomen is indicative of an abdominal mass, a common presentation in neuroblastoma. This symptom should be followed up on further as it aligns with the diagnosis. Choices A, B, and D are less specific to neuroblastoma. Weight loss and listlessness (Choice A) can be nonspecific symptoms, while dark yellow urine in small amounts (Choice B) may suggest dehydration or other conditions. Muscle weakness and unsteadiness (Choice D) could point towards various neurological or muscular issues but are not as directly related to neuroblastoma as the symptom described in Choice C.
A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Albuterol (Proventil)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.
A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan to implement when working with the client?
- A. Airborne
- B. Droplet
- C. Protective
- D. Contact
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of infectious droplets. Airborne precautions involve wearing a mask, such as an N95 respirator, to protect against inhaling infectious particles. Droplet precautions are for diseases spread through respiratory droplets larger than those in airborne transmission, such as influenza. Protective precautions are not specific to respiratory infections and are more general measures to protect patients from harm. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA or C. diff infections, not for tuberculosis.
The healthcare professional is caring for a client who is post-operative following a hip replacement. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Pain at the surgical site
- B. Swelling in the affected leg
- C. Elevated temperature
- D. Shortness of breath
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical assessment finding that could indicate a pulmonary embolism or other serious complication related to surgery, such as a respiratory issue or cardiac problem. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Pain at the surgical site is common post-operatively and can be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Swelling in the affected leg is expected after a hip replacement and can often be managed conservatively or monitored closely. An elevated temperature could be a sign of infection, which is important to address but may not require immediate intervention unless other symptoms of sepsis are present.
A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about alternatives to the use of restraints on clients who are confused. Which of the following instructions should the staff nurse include?
- A. Remove clocks from the client's room
- B. Use full-length side rails on the client's bed
- C. Check on the client frequently while they are in the restroom
- D. Encourage physical activity throughout the day to expend energy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging physical activity throughout the day is an effective way to manage confusion in clients and reduce the need for restraints. Physical activity helps in expending energy, promoting circulation, and improving overall well-being. Removing clocks from the client's room (choice A) may not directly address the issue of confusion or reduce the need for restraints. Using full-length side rails on the client's bed (choice B) can actually increase the risk of entrapment and should be avoided. Checking on the client frequently while they are in the restroom (choice C) is important for monitoring safety but may not directly address the underlying issue of confusion and the need for restraints.