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A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select one that doesn't apply.)
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Visual disturbances
- C. Presence of uremic frost
- D. Decreased mentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Presence of uremic frost. HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis and dehydration, not uremia. A: Increased heart rate is a non-specific sign of stress. B: Visual disturbances can be seen in diabetic retinopathy but are not specific to HHNS. D: Decreased mentation is common in HHNS due to severe dehydration and hyperglycemia leading to altered mental status.
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The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia who has been febrile for 24 hours. Which data is most important for the nurse to obtain in determining the client's fluid status?
- A. Daily intake and output
- B. Skin turgor
- C. Daily weight
- D. Vital signs every 4 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Daily weight. Daily weight is the most important data to assess fluid status in a client with pneumonia as weight changes can indicate fluid retention or loss, a crucial aspect in managing pneumonia. Skin turgor (B) is more indicative of hydration status, not overall fluid balance. Daily intake and output (A) is important but does not provide a direct measure of fluid status. Vital signs (D) are important for monitoring overall health but do not directly assess fluid status.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. International normalized ratio (INR)
- D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Heparin primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
2. International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy.
3. INR is more specific for monitoring heparin therapy compared to other options.
4. Prothrombin Time (PT) and Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are not as accurate for heparin monitoring.
5. Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, but INR is a more precise indicator of heparin's effect.
A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is the first action the nurse should take because the client is experiencing abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea, which could indicate a gynecological issue. A pelvic examination by a healthcare provider is necessary to assess for any potential reproductive system problems, such as ovarian cysts, endometriosis, or pelvic inflammatory disease. This examination will provide valuable information to diagnose and treat the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect because notifying the parents to pick up the client does not address the primary concern of evaluating the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. Choice C is also incorrect as determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, while important, does not take precedence over a thorough pelvic examination. Choice D is incorrect as asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination should only be done by a healthcare provider in a proper clinical setting, not in a school clinic.
A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?
- A. Bladder distention
- B. Serum albumin level
- C. Abdominal girth
- D. Breath sounds
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Breath sounds). Pitting edema is a common side effect of amlodipine due to vasodilation. It can also lead to pulmonary edema, causing shortness of breath and crackles on auscultation. Therefore, assessing breath sounds is crucial to detect any signs of fluid overload and potential pulmonary complications. Bladder distention (A) is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Serum albumin level (B) may indicate protein status but is not immediately necessary in this case. Abdominal girth (C) is more indicative of ascites or abdominal distension, not directly related to the client's edema and possible pulmonary complications.
A nurse is planning care for a client in the late stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
- A. Impaired physical mobility
- B. Ineffective breathing pattern
- C. Impaired skin integrity
- D. Risk for infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ineffective breathing pattern. In late-stage ALS, respiratory muscles weaken, leading to breathing difficulties. Priority is given to maintaining adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Impaired physical mobility (choice A) is important but not the highest priority. Impaired skin integrity (choice C) and risk for infection (choice D) may result from immobility but are secondary to the critical issue of breathing in this scenario.