A client with vaginal cancer is being treated with a radioactive vaginal implant. The client's husband asks the nurse if he can spend the night with his wife. The nurse should explain that:
- A. Overnight stays by family members is against hospital policy.
- B. There is no need for him to stay because staffing is adequate.
- C. His wife will rest much better knowing that he is at home.
- D. Visitation is limited to 30 minutes when the implant is in place.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Radioactive implants emit radiation posing a risk to others. Visitation is limited to short periods (e.g. 30 minutes) to minimize radiation exposure. The other options do not address the safety concern related to radiation.
You may also like to solve these questions
A vaginal exam of a laboring client reveals that the fetus is at 0 station. This assessment means that:
- A. The fetus has not descended into the birth canal.
- B. The fetus is in a transverse lie.
- C. The fetus is level with the ischial spines.
- D. The fetus is at increased risk for precipitate delivery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A 0 station means the presenting part of the fetus is level with the ischial spines indicating engagement in the pelvis. It does not indicate a lack of descent transverse lie or immediate risk of precipitate delivery.
A client with a history of a ventricular tachycardia is receiving Amiodarone (Cordarone). The nurse should monitor the client for:
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Pulmonary toxicity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, a serious side effect requiring monitoring for cough or dyspnea. Hypotension is possible but less specific, and hyperglycemia/hypokalemia are unrelated.
A client has had a unilateral adrenalectomy to remove a tumor. The most important measurement in the immediate post-operative period for the nurse to take is:
- A. The blood pressure
- B. The temperature
- C. The urinary output
- D. The specific gravity of the urine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adrenalectomy can disrupt cortisol and aldosterone production leading to blood pressure instability (e.g. hypotension from adrenal insufficiency). Monitoring blood pressure is critical to detect and manage these changes promptly.
The nurse is admitting a client with a suspected duodenal ulcer. The client will most likely report that his abdominal discomfort decreases when he:
- A. Avoids eating
- B. Rests in a recumbent position
- C. Eats a meal or snack
- D. Sits upright after eating
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Duodenal ulcers cause pain relieved by eating due to buffering of gastric acid. Pain worsens when the stomach is empty. Resting or sitting upright does not directly relieve symptoms.
A client with a history of tuberculosis is admitted with complaints of hemoptysis. The nurse should give priority to:"
- A. Administering antibiotics
- B. Monitoring respiratory status
- C. Administering pain medication
- D. Monitoring blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hemoptysis in tuberculosis indicates potential lung tissue damage, so monitoring respiratory status is critical to assess for airway compromise or worsening infection.
Nokea