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A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:
- A. 85%
- B. 89%
- C. 95%
- D. 100%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.
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The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) 50 mg to a patient who has a blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Administer the medication as ordered.
- B. Encourage the patient to drink more fluids.
- C. Hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine.
- D. Request an order for serum electrolytes and administer the medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine. Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are contraindicated in renal failure. In this case, the patient has oliguria, which is a reduced urine output, indicating potential renal insufficiency. Before administering the diuretic, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's renal function through serum BUN and creatinine levels. Encouraging the patient to drink more fluids (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of renal function. Administering the medication as ordered (Choice A) without assessing renal function can be harmful. Requesting serum electrolytes and administering the medication (Choice D) overlooks the need for a specific evaluation of renal function in this scenario.
The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?
- A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg
- B. Client with Kussmaul respirations
- C. Man with skin itching from head to toe
- D. Client with halitosis and stomatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.
A client has a chest drainage system in place. The fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration. The nurse interprets this finding as an indication that:
- A. The tube is patent
- B. There is probably a kink in the tubing
- C. Suction should be added to the system
- D. The client is retaining airway secretions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The tube is patent.' When the fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration, it indicates that the chest tube is patent, allowing for proper drainage. Choice B is incorrect because a kink in the tubing would obstruct the flow of fluid, leading to abnormal fluctuations in the water seal chamber. Choice C is incorrect as adding suction to the system is not indicated based on the described finding. Choice D is incorrect as the rising and falling of fluid in the water seal chamber is not indicative of the client retaining airway secretions.
A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are accurate regarding PD? (Select all that apply.)
- A. You will not need vascular access to perform PD.
- B. There is less restriction of protein and fluids.
- C. You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges.
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the statements are accurate advantages of peritoneal dialysis (PD). Peritoneal dialysis does not require vascular access, offers less restriction on protein and fluids, and provides flexibility in scheduling for the exchanges. Choice A is correct because one of the advantages of PD is not needing vascular access, which is required in hemodialysis. Choice B is correct because PD allows for less dietary restriction compared to hemodialysis. Choice C is correct because PD allows for flexible scheduling of exchanges, providing more independence to the individual undergoing treatment.
A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Nocturia
- B. Flank pain
- C. Increased abdominal girth
- D. B & C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.