Nokea
A client's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?
- A. to prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
- B. to reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
- C. to lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
- D. to attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Microorganisms that infect CVADs are often coagulase-negative staphylococci, which can be eliminated by antibiotic administration through the catheter. If unsuccessful in eliminating the microorganism, the CVAD must be removed. CVAD use lessens the need for peripheral IV lines and thus the risk of infiltration. In this case, however, the antibiotics are given to eradicate microorganisms from the CVAD. CVAD use has the effect described in Choice 2, but in this case, the antibiotics are given through the CVAD to eliminate the infective agent. The route does not prevent an allergic reaction.
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A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:
- A. a maintenance dose.
- B. a loading dose.
- C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
- D. the medication to be given intravenously.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A loading or priming dose rapidly establishes a therapeutic plasma drug level. It can be calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration.
A patient that has delivered a 8.2 lb. baby boy 3 days ago via c-section, reports white patches on her breast that aren't going away. Which of the following medications may be necessary?
- A. Nystatin
- B. Atropine
- C. Amoxil
- D. Loritab
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Thrush, a fungal infection, may be occurring, and Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat it.
An example of an extended care facility is a:
- A. home health agency.
- B. suicide prevention center.
- C. state-owned psychiatric hospital.
- D. nursing facility.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When an elderly client has been hospitalized for an illness, under Medicare he or she can be transferred to a nursing facility.
If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?
- A. retrograde ejaculation
- B. decreased plasma testosterone
- C. hypertrophy of testicles
- D. state of euphoria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Untreated chronic renal failure causes decreased testosterone levels, atrophy of testicles, and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure. It is a complication of transurethral resection of the prostate. In chronic renal failure, the testicles atrophy; they do not hypertrophy. Chronic renal failure produces a state of depression, not euphoria.
In infants and children, the side effects of first-generation over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax), can include:
- A. Reye's syndrome.
- B. cholinergic effects.
- C. paradoxical CNS stimulation.
- D. nausea and diarrhea.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Typically, first-generation OTC antihistamines have a sedating effect because of passage into the CNS. However, in some individuals, especially infants and children, paradoxical CNS stimulation occurs and is manifested by excitement, euphoria, restlessness, and confusion. For this reason, use of first-generation OTC antihistamines has declined and second-generation product use has increased. Reye's syndrome is a systemic response to a virus. First-generation OTC antihistamines do not exhibit a cholinergic effect. Nausea and diarrhea are uncommon with first-generation OTC antihistamines.