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A community health nurse (CHN) suspects that an elementary school student is being physically abused. Which action would be the most appropriate one for the CHN to take?
- A. Ask the student about the abuse.
- B. Document findings in the student's school record.
- C. Discuss the suspicions of abuse with the student's teachers or the family's spiritual leader.
- D. Notify legal authorities.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify legal authorities. This is the most appropriate action for the CHN to take because suspected cases of child abuse must be reported to legal authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child. Reporting to legal authorities initiates an official investigation by trained professionals who can assess the situation and take appropriate action to protect the child.
A: Asking the student about the abuse may put the child at risk of further harm if the abuser is present or if the child is not ready to disclose the abuse.
B: Documenting findings in the student's school record is not sufficient to address the immediate safety concerns of the child.
C: Discussing suspicions with teachers or spiritual leaders may not lead to the necessary intervention and protection of the child.
In summary, notifying legal authorities is the most effective and necessary step to ensure the safety of the child in cases of suspected abuse.
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Which of the following demonstrates the final phase of application of the community health nursing process?
- A. Presenting feedback about a 6-week fitness class
- B. Determining the needs of the community
- C. Developing a 6-week wellness program
- D. Supervising a fitness class at the local YWCA or YMCA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presenting feedback about a 6-week fitness class. This demonstrates the final phase of the community health nursing process, which involves evaluating the outcomes of implemented interventions. By presenting feedback, the nurse is assessing the effectiveness of the fitness class in improving community health.
Choice B, determining the needs of the community, is part of the assessment phase, not the final phase. Choice C, developing a wellness program, is part of the planning phase. Choice D, supervising a fitness class, is part of the implementation phase. Thus, only choice A aligns with the final phase of the community health nursing process.
A community health nurse (CHN) is part of a palliative consultation team that provides care for people living on the streets, in parks, or in shelters or who are unwilling or unable to come to the clinic, hospital, or hospice to receive end of life care. How can this type of nursing service be best classified?
- A. Community-oriented nursing
- B. Home health nursing
- C. Outpost nursing
- D. Private duty nursing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Outpost nursing involves providing care to underserved populations in remote or hard-to-reach areas, like people living on the streets or in shelters.
Step 2: This type of nursing focuses on meeting the healthcare needs of individuals where they are, rather than in traditional healthcare settings.
Step 3: Outpost nursing aligns with the scenario of providing end-of-life care to those unable to access traditional healthcare facilities.
Step 4: Community-oriented nursing focuses on improving overall health of a community, not specific end-of-life care.
Step 5: Home health nursing involves providing care in a patient's home, not necessarily for individuals living on the streets or in shelters.
Step 6: Private duty nursing involves providing one-on-one care to an individual in a private setting, which does not apply to the scenario provided.
Summary: Outpost nursing is the best classification as it aligns with providing care to underserved populations in non-traditional settings, while the other choices
A student asks the school nurse how acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is diagnosed. Which answer is correct?
- A. AIDS is diagnosed through the negative results of a screening test called an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
- B. Antibodies to HIV, which form in about 6 weeks to 3 months following infection with HIV, are detected in the blood.
- C. Antibodies to HIV reach peak levels of 200/mL of blood.
- D. AIDS is diagnosed through positive ELISA results and clinical signs of AIDS.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because antibodies to HIV are typically detected in the blood within 6 weeks to 3 months after infection, indicating exposure to the virus. This seroconversion period is when the body starts producing antibodies to fight the HIV virus. The presence of these antibodies in the blood is a key indicator of HIV infection, leading to a diagnosis of AIDS.
Choice A is incorrect because a negative ELISA result does not diagnose AIDS, as it only indicates the absence of HIV antibodies. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific peak level of HIV antibodies required for diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA result alone is not sufficient to diagnose AIDS; clinical signs and symptoms must also be present.
A client with tuberculosis (TB) wants to know why directly observed therapy (DOT) is required as part of the treatment. What community health nurse (CHN) response would be the most appropriate one?
- A. "Clients with TB are often nonadherent to their medication regimen; DOT will ensure that you take the medications prescribed to you."
- B. "This therapy is recommended by TB experts as the best way to ensure that you receive the treatment you need and that the infection doesn't become resistant to treatment."
- C. "This ensures that you get your medication even at the late stages of TB, when your memory may be affected by inadequate oxygenation to the brain."
- D. "TB medications are very expensive, and this method ensures that government health care resources are not wasted by those who will not take the medications regularly."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because directly observed therapy (DOT) is recommended by TB experts to ensure treatment adherence and prevent drug resistance. TB treatment requires strict adherence to a regimen to prevent the development of drug-resistant strains. DOT involves a healthcare provider directly observing the client taking their medication to ensure compliance. Choice A addresses nonadherence but does not emphasize the importance of preventing drug resistance. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the main purpose of DOT in preventing drug resistance and ensuring treatment effectiveness.
Which public health service best represents primary prevention?
- A. Administering the influenza vaccine to a group of seniors
- B. Initiating an infant car seat safety screening program for parents in low-income housing
- C. Starting a rehabilitation clinic for middle-aged adults who reside in low-income housing
- D. Setting up a blood pressure screening clinic at the local mall
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because initiating an infant car seat safety screening program for parents in low-income housing best represents primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it occurs. In this case, educating parents on proper car seat safety practices helps prevent injuries to infants in the first place. Administering the influenza vaccine (A) is an example of secondary prevention as it aims to detect and treat existing conditions. Starting a rehabilitation clinic (C) and setting up a blood pressure screening clinic (D) are also examples of secondary prevention as they focus on managing existing health conditions rather than preventing them.