A community hit by a hurricane has suffered mass destruction and flooding. Several facilities are not functioning, and the area is contaminated with human excretions. The nurse is developing a plan of care for clients diagnosed with cholera after an outbreak. Which intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as prescribed.
- B. Provide fluid and electrolyte replacement.
- C. Isolate all infectious diarrhea victims.
- D. Administer cholera vaccine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Providing fluid and electrolyte replacement is the highest priority to prevent dehydration and shock in clients with cholera. Administering prophylactic antibiotics may be necessary but is not the highest priority. Isolating infectious diarrhea victims is important for preventing the spread of infection, but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Administering a cholera vaccine is preventive and not the immediate priority in treating clients already diagnosed with cholera.
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Which instruction should the nurse provide a client who was recently diagnosed with Raynaud's disease?
- A. Avoid cold temperatures completely.
- B. Take medications only during flare-ups.
- C. Wear gloves when removing packages from the freezer.
- D. Limit physical activity to avoid stress.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with Raynaud's disease is to wear gloves when handling cold items to prevent vasospasm. Raynaud's disease is characterized by vasospasm in response to cold or stress, leading to reduced blood flow to extremities. Wearing gloves when removing packages from the freezer helps minimize exposure to cold temperatures and can prevent triggering vasospasms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding cold temperatures completely is impractical and may not always be possible. Taking medications only during flare-ups does not address prevention strategies, and limiting physical activity to avoid stress is not a primary intervention for Raynaud's disease.
A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.
A client who is newly diagnosed with emphysema is being prepared for discharge. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide the client to assist them with dyspnea self-management?
- A. Allow additional time to complete physical activities to reduce oxygen demand.
- B. Practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips.
- C. Use a humidifier to increase home air quality humidity between 30-50%.
- D. Strengthen abdominal muscles by alternating leg raises during exhalation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to practice inhaling through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips can help improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea. This technique, known as pursed lip breathing, can help regulate breathing patterns and decrease the work of breathing in clients with emphysema. Choice A is incorrect because allowing additional time for physical activities does not directly address dyspnea management. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier, although beneficial for respiratory conditions, does not specifically assist with dyspnea self-management. Choice D is also incorrect as strengthening abdominal muscles through leg raises does not directly target dyspnea relief.
How often should the casts be changed for a newborn with talipes who is wearing casts?
- A. Daily
- B. Weekly
- C. Biweekly
- D. Monthly
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weekly. Treatment of talipes involves manipulation and applying short leg casts. The casts need to be changed weekly to allow for further manipulation and to accommodate the rapid growth of the infant. Changing the casts daily (choice A) would be too frequent and may not provide enough time for the correction to take place. Changing the casts biweekly (choice C) or monthly (choice D) would not provide adequate support for the ongoing correction process required for talipes.
Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?
- A. Atrial fibrillation.
- B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
- C. AV block.
- D. Ventricular tachycardia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.
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