Nokea
A condition of trial of scar is
- A. Estimated fetal weight of less than 3600g
- B. Availability of a level one hospital nearby
- C. Not more than two previous caesarean section scars
- D. An adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Not more than two previous caesarean section scars. This is because a trial of scar refers to a trial of labor in a woman who has had previous cesarean sections. The guideline typically recommends that a trial of scar should be considered in women with no more than two previous cesarean section scars to reduce the risk of uterine rupture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the estimated fetal weight, availability of a level one hospital, and pelvis size are not specific criteria used to determine eligibility for a trial of scar.
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Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include
- A. No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative
- B. Quantiferon serum assay for exposure
- C. Consideration of prophylactic therapy
- D. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative. In this scenario, Jennifer has a positive PPD test with a 12-mm induration but a negative chest radiograph, indicating latent TB infection. The negative chest radiograph rules out active TB disease. As a result, Jennifer does not require further evaluation or treatment for active TB. The positive PPD alone does not warrant further investigations such as Quantiferon assay (B) or prophylactic therapy (C) as these are not indicated for latent TB infection without active disease. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB (D) is unnecessary and potentially harmful as Jennifer does not have active TB. Thus, the correct course of action is to provide no further care based on the negative chest radiograph.
Effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system include
- A. Development of infarcts and placental abruption
- B. Lowered vaginal discharge pH and haemorrhage
- C. Congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia
- D. Poor placental anchorage and severe infarction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because preeclampsia can lead to poor placental anchorage, which results in reduced blood flow to the placenta, leading to severe infarction. This can cause adverse effects on the fetus and the mother. Choice A is incorrect because infarcts and placental abruption are not specific effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because lowered vaginal discharge pH and hemorrhage are not typical effects of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect because congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia are not direct effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system.
In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for
- A. Prolonged intubation
- B. Thromboembolism
- C. Delayed wound healing
- D. Atelectasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D: Atelectasis):
1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired collagen synthesis, affecting lung tissue integrity.
2. Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, increasing the risk of lung collapse.
3. Volume contraction can lead to decreased lung compliance, predisposing to atelectasis.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Prolonged intubation is more related to airway issues, not specifically affected by the mentioned risk factors.
B: Thromboembolism is more linked to blood clotting issues rather than the mentioned risk factors.
C: Delayed wound healing is more influenced by nutritional deficiencies and blood flow, not directly linked to lung complications like atelectasis.
The term used to describe pure fetal blood loss that occurs following a ruptured vasa praevia is
- A. Fetal extra-versation
- B. Fetal exsanguination
- C. Velamentous bleeding
- D. Fetal hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal exsanguination. This term accurately describes the process of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia. Exsanguination refers to severe blood loss leading to death. In this context, it specifically denotes the loss of fetal blood due to the rupture of vasa praevia, which can be fatal for the fetus.
A: Fetal extra-versation is not a recognized medical term and does not accurately describe the scenario presented in the question.
C: Velamentous bleeding refers to a condition where fetal blood vessels are unprotected by the umbilical cord and run through the amniotic membranes, not specifically related to ruptured vasa praevia.
D: Fetal hemorrhage is a general term for fetal blood loss and does not specifically address the situation of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia.
Mrs. Coates is a 65-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer. She had an uneventful immediate postoperative course, but throughout the course of day 1 she has complained of a mild abdominal discomfort that has progressed throughout the day. This evening the AGACNP is called to the bedside to evaluate the patient for persistent and progressive discomfort. Likely causes of her symptoms include all of the following except
- A. Colic due to return of peristalsis
- B. Leakage from the duodenal stump
- C. Gastric retention
- D. Hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric retention. Mrs. Coates' symptoms of persistent and progressive discomfort are not likely due to gastric retention because she underwent a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer, which would bypass the stomach. Therefore, gastric retention is not a possible cause.
A: Colic due to return of peristalsis is a possible cause as peristalsis returning after surgery can cause discomfort.
B: Leakage from the duodenal stump is a possible cause as it can lead to abdominal discomfort postoperatively.
D: Hemorrhage is a possible cause given her history of bleeding ulcer and surgery.