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Convulsions in amniotic fluid embolism are confused for:
- A. Antepartum eclampsia
- B. Presence of stroke
- C. Pre-existing epilepsy
- D. Postpartum eclampsia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum eclampsia. In amniotic fluid embolism, convulsions can mimic postpartum eclampsia due to similarities in symptoms such as seizures and hypertension. However, the key differentiator is the timing of onset - postpartum eclampsia occurs after delivery, while amniotic fluid embolism typically occurs during labor or immediately postpartum. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the timing and clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism. Antepartum eclampsia occurs before delivery, stroke presents with neurological deficits, and pre-existing epilepsy is a chronic condition unrelated to the immediate postpartum period.
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A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
- A. Lactulose taken 20 g PO daily
- B. Spironolactone taken 100 mg PO daily
- C. Protein intake of 50 g daily
- D. Zolpidem taken 10 mg PO qhs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake is crucial to prevent ammonia accumulation. Protein breakdown in the body leads to ammonia production, which worsens encephalopathy symptoms. Limiting protein intake to 50g daily helps decrease ammonia formation. Lactulose (choice A) is used to reduce ammonia absorption in the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention in liver disease. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sedative and not related to managing ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for long-term management of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy.
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being raped. The AGACNP examines her and realizes that the patients husband is the rapist. The patient does not want to press charges and wants to return home with her husband. The AGACNPs initial action should be to
- A. Report the physical assault to law enforcement
- B. Have the patient sign a release to go home with her husband
- C. Consult psychiatry for a psych hold
- D. Provide counseling to the patient regarding her options Downloaded by: basil7kl | basil7kl@gmail.com Distribution of this document is illegal Stuvia.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action for the AGACNP is to provide counseling to the patient regarding her options (Choice D). This is important to ensure the patient's safety, well-being, and autonomy. Counseling will allow the patient to explore her feelings, understand her options, and make an informed decision about her next steps. Reporting the physical assault to law enforcement (Choice A) should only be done with the patient's consent to respect her wishes. Having the patient sign a release to go home with her husband (Choice B) could potentially put the patient at risk of further harm. Consulting psychiatry for a psych hold (Choice C) may not be appropriate unless the patient is deemed a danger to herself or others.
Causes of Down syndrome are
- A. Trisomy, deletion and non-disjunction
- B. Mosaicism, duplication and translocation
- C. Translocation, mosaicism and deletion
- D. Mosaicism, trisomy and translocation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Down syndrome is primarily caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. This means there is an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to the characteristic features of the syndrome. Mosaicism and translocation of chromosome 21 can also result in Down syndrome, albeit less frequently. Option A includes deletion, which is not a common cause of Down syndrome. Option B lists duplication, which is not a typical mechanism for Down syndrome. Option C includes deletion and mosaicism, but trisomy is the main cause of Down syndrome, making option D the most accurate choice.
Precipitate labour is an unusually rapid labour
- A. That is concluded in less than three hours
- B. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate despite good uterine contractions
- C. That is concluded in more than three hours
- D. Where the external cervical os fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Precipitate labor is defined as unusually rapid labor.
2. Option A states that it is concluded in less than three hours, aligning with the definition.
3. Option B talks about cervical dilation, which is not a defining factor of precipitate labor.
4. Option C contradicts the definition as it mentions a duration longer than three hours.
5. Option D mentions poor uterine contractions, which are not characteristic of precipitate labor.
Summary:
Option A is correct because it aligns with the definition of precipitate labor being rapid, while the other options are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of precipitate labor.
What role does the placenta play in managing fetal waste products?
- A. Filters toxins
- B. Facilitates nutrient absorption
- C. Removes carbon dioxide
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the placenta performs multiple functions in managing fetal waste products. It filters toxins, facilitates nutrient absorption, and removes carbon dioxide. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, allowing for the exchange of nutrients and waste products. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in describing the role of the placenta in managing fetal waste products. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the functions that the placenta serves in this context.