In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for
- A. Prolonged intubation
- B. Thromboembolism
- C. Delayed wound healing
- D. Atelectasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D: Atelectasis):
1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired collagen synthesis, affecting lung tissue integrity.
2. Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, increasing the risk of lung collapse.
3. Volume contraction can lead to decreased lung compliance, predisposing to atelectasis.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Prolonged intubation is more related to airway issues, not specifically affected by the mentioned risk factors.
B: Thromboembolism is more linked to blood clotting issues rather than the mentioned risk factors.
C: Delayed wound healing is more influenced by nutritional deficiencies and blood flow, not directly linked to lung complications like atelectasis.
You may also like to solve these questions
The AGACNP is rounding on a patient following splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. On postoperative day 2, a review of the laboratory studies is expected to reveal
- A. Increased MCV
- B. Increased Hgb
- C. Increased platelets
- D. Increased albumin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased MCV. Following splenectomy, there is a compensatory increase in red blood cell production, leading to an increase in Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) due to the release of larger, younger red blood cells into circulation. This is known as stress erythropoiesis.
Summary:
B: Increased Hgb - Hgb levels may not necessarily increase post-splenectomy as it depends on factors such as bleeding or hydration status.
C: Increased platelets - Platelet count is not expected to increase immediately post-splenectomy.
D: Increased albumin - Albumin levels are not directly influenced by splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
A fetal associated risk of prolonged pregnancy includes
- A. Fetal macrosomia
- B. Placental dysfunction
- C. Cesarean section
- D. Shoulder dystocia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fetal macrosomia. Prolonged pregnancy increases the risk of fetal macrosomia due to continued fetal growth beyond the normal term. This can lead to complications during delivery, such as shoulder dystocia and birth injuries. Placental dysfunction and cesarean section are possible outcomes of prolonged pregnancy but are not directly associated with fetal risks in this context. Shoulder dystocia is a potential complication of fetal macrosomia but is not a direct fetal risk of prolonged pregnancy.
Which one of the following features is indicative of an abnormal labour pattern?
- A. Presence of the retraction ring
- B. Presence of the Bandl’s ring
- C. Cervical canal short and thin
- D. Vagina is warm and moist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of the Bandl's ring. This is indicative of an abnormal labor pattern as it may suggest a uterine rupture, which is a serious complication. Bandl's ring is a constriction ring formed between the upper and lower uterine segments due to excessive uterine contractions. It can lead to fetal distress and necessitate immediate medical intervention.
A: Presence of the retraction ring is a normal phenomenon during labor, marking the boundary between the lower and upper uterine segments.
C: Cervical canal short and thin can be a normal variation in labor and does not necessarily indicate an abnormal pattern.
D: Vagina being warm and moist is a common physiological response during labor and does not provide information on the progress or abnormality of labor.
Which one of the following is a characteristic of fetal post-maturity syndrome?
- A. Closed eyes, unusually alert
- B. Long, frail finger nails
- C. Wrinkled, peeling skin
- D. Excess vernix caseosa
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wrinkled, peeling skin. Post-maturity syndrome occurs when a pregnancy extends beyond 42 weeks, causing the baby to lose the protective layer of vernix caseosa, leading to dry, peeling skin. Closed eyes and being unusually alert (A) are not specific to post-maturity syndrome. Long, frail fingernails (B) are not a typical characteristic of post-maturity. Excess vernix caseosa (D) is actually a characteristic of a premature baby, not a post-mature one.
Clinical features of facial palsy are
- A. Inability to feed and excessive cry
- B. Reduced facial movement and irritability
- C. Excessively dry eyeball and feeding difficulties
- D. Eyes permanently open and no facial movement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reduced facial movement is a key clinical feature of facial palsy. This can lead to difficulty in making facial expressions, closing the eye on the affected side, and drooping of the mouth. Irritability may also occur due to discomfort or difficulty in communication.
Choice A is incorrect because inability to feed and excessive cry are not typical features of facial palsy. Choice C is incorrect as excessively dry eyeball and feeding difficulties are not commonly associated with facial palsy. Choice D is incorrect as eyes being permanently open and no facial movement are not characteristic of facial palsy.