Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers

Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Related

Review Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers related questions and content

Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include

  • A. No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative
  • B. Quantiferon serum assay for exposure
  • C. Consideration of prophylactic therapy
  • D. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: No further care, because the chest radiograph is negative. In this scenario, Jennifer has a positive PPD test with a 12-mm induration but a negative chest radiograph, indicating latent TB infection. The negative chest radiograph rules out active TB disease. As a result, Jennifer does not require further evaluation or treatment for active TB. The positive PPD alone does not warrant further investigations such as Quantiferon assay (B) or prophylactic therapy (C) as these are not indicated for latent TB infection without active disease. Beginning therapy for pulmonary TB (D) is unnecessary and potentially harmful as Jennifer does not have active TB. Thus, the correct course of action is to provide no further care based on the negative chest radiograph.

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A maternal associated risk of prolonged pregnancy includes

  • A. Intra-uterine oligohydramnios
  • B. Placental insufficiency
  • C. Fetal post-maturity syndrome
  • D. Large for gestational age baby
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placental insufficiency. Prolonged pregnancy can lead to decreased placental function, resulting in inadequate oxygen and nutrients for the fetus. This can lead to complications such as intra-uterine growth restriction and fetal distress. Option A (Intra-uterine oligohydramnios) is a consequence of decreased amniotic fluid levels but not directly associated with prolonged pregnancy. Option C (Fetal post-maturity syndrome) refers to the complications seen in a post-term newborn, not maternal risks. Option D (Large for gestational age baby) is a consequence of prolonged pregnancy but does not directly impact maternal health.

While participating in sports, it is not uncommon for people to be subjected to sudden rotational injuries that result in the abrupt rotation of the cerebral cortex around the more fixed midbrain structures. This can interrupt input and outflow from the reticular activating system and result in what clinical phenomenon?

  • A. Epidural hematoma
  • B. Uncal herniation
  • C. Concussion
  • D. Contrecoup injury
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epidural hematoma.
1. Sudden rotational injuries can cause tearing of the middle meningeal artery, leading to an epidural hematoma.
2. The hematoma can compress the brain, disrupting the reticular activating system, causing altered consciousness.
3. Uncal herniation (B) involves herniation of the uncus, not rotation-related.
4. Concussion (C) is a mild traumatic brain injury, not directly related to rotational injuries.
5. Contrecoup injury (D) is when the brain impacts the opposite side of the skull due to sudden deceleration, not rotation-induced.

What is the significance of amniotic fluid analysis during pregnancy?

  • A. Detect fetal infections
  • B. Assess fetal lung maturity
  • C. Determine fetal position
  • D. Assess placental health
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess fetal lung maturity. Amniotic fluid analysis measures the levels of substances like surfactant, which indicates lung maturity. This helps in determining if the fetus is ready for delivery. Other choices are incorrect because amniotic fluid analysis is not primarily used to detect fetal infections (A), determine fetal position (C), or assess placental health (D). These functions are typically achieved through other diagnostic tests or imaging techniques.

A non-pharmacological measure of pain relief in labour includes

  • A. Entonox
  • B. Cyclothane
  • C. Diamorphine
  • D. Homeopathy
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diamorphine. Diamorphine is a non-pharmacological measure of pain relief in labor. It is a type of opioid analgesic that helps to reduce pain during labor. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, altering the perception of pain.

Rationale:
1. Diamorphine is a medication that directly targets pain relief.
2. It is a commonly used non-pharmacological measure in labor settings.
3. Diamorphine does not involve the use of any gases or inhalants like Entonox (A) or Cyclothane (B).
4. Homeopathy (D) is based on the principle of treating "like with like" using highly diluted substances and is not typically used for pain relief in labor.

Summary:
A: Entonox and B: Cyclothane are incorrect because they are pharmacological measures involving the use of gases or inhalants. D: Homeopathy is

Janet is a 54-year-old female who is in the ICU following hepatic resection due to metastatic disease. She is expected to move to a general medical floor today. Morning labs are as follows serum bilirubin approximately 2 gdL, albumin 3.1 gdL, and prothrombin time 20 seconds. AST and ALT are 85 and 99 respectively. The appropriate response would be to

  • A. Cancel the transfer and keep her in the ICU
  • B. Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma
  • C. Repeat the labs the next day
  • D. Prepare for reoperation
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infuse albumin and fresh frozen plasma. Given Janet's post-hepatic resection status and abnormal lab values indicating liver dysfunction (elevated bilirubin, low albumin, prolonged prothrombin time, elevated AST and ALT), she is at risk for coagulopathy and hypoalbuminemia. Infusing albumin can help improve her oncotic pressure and fluid balance, while fresh frozen plasma can replenish clotting factors to address the prolonged prothrombin time. This intervention aims to stabilize her condition before transferring to the general medical floor.

Canceling the transfer (Choice A) is not necessary if appropriate interventions can be taken. Repeating labs the next day (Choice C) delays potentially needed treatments. Preparing for reoperation (Choice D) is not indicated based on the information provided.

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