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A condition of trial of scar is
- A. Estimated fetal weight of less than 3600g
- B. Availability of a level one hospital nearby
- C. Not more than two previous caesarean section scars
- D. An adequate pelvis with true conjugate 10.5cm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Not more than two previous caesarean section scars. This is because a trial of scar refers to a trial of labor in a woman who has had previous cesarean sections. The guideline typically recommends that a trial of scar should be considered in women with no more than two previous cesarean section scars to reduce the risk of uterine rupture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the estimated fetal weight, availability of a level one hospital, and pelvis size are not specific criteria used to determine eligibility for a trial of scar.
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Cardiac disease grade 1 is also known as
- A. Organic disease
- B. Mitral stenosis
- C. Ventricular failure
- D. Vascular disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Grade 1 cardiac disease refers to early-stage or mild heart conditions that are not yet severe. Choice A, "Organic disease," is the correct answer as it encompasses a broad category of structural heart abnormalities. Mitral stenosis (B) and ventricular failure (C) are specific conditions that can be present in cardiac disease but do not represent the general term for grade 1. Vascular disease (D) primarily refers to conditions affecting blood vessels, not the heart itself. In summary, choice A is correct because it is a comprehensive term that includes various structural heart abnormalities typically found in grade 1 cardiac disease, while the other choices are either too specific or unrelated to the concept of grade 1 cardiac disease.
In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for
- A. Prolonged intubation
- B. Thromboembolism
- C. Delayed wound healing
- D. Atelectasis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D: Atelectasis):
1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired collagen synthesis, affecting lung tissue integrity.
2. Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, increasing the risk of lung collapse.
3. Volume contraction can lead to decreased lung compliance, predisposing to atelectasis.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Prolonged intubation is more related to airway issues, not specifically affected by the mentioned risk factors.
B: Thromboembolism is more linked to blood clotting issues rather than the mentioned risk factors.
C: Delayed wound healing is more influenced by nutritional deficiencies and blood flow, not directly linked to lung complications like atelectasis.
Diabetes in pregnancy predisposes a mother to developing vulvovaginitis due to
- A. High acidity levels which favor growth of E. coli
- B. Low acidity levels which favor growth of candida albicans
- C. Existing chronic hypertension
- D. Lowered osmotic pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Low acidity levels which favor growth of candida albicans. During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased vaginal pH, creating a more alkaline environment that promotes the growth of candida albicans, causing vulvovaginitis. Choice A is incorrect as E. coli thrives in alkaline environments. Choice C, existing chronic hypertension, is unrelated to the development of vulvovaginitis. Choice D, lowered osmotic pressure, does not directly influence the growth of candida albicans.
A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires
- A. En bloc resection
- B. Adjuvant therapies
- C. Neoadjuvant therapies
- D. Elective lymph node dissection NURS 6560 Final Exam with Verified Answers 2024
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adjuvant therapies. Adjuvant therapies are additional treatments given after the primary treatment, usually surgery, to reduce the risk of cancer recurrence. In the context of fixed tumors, adjuvant therapies can help target any remaining cancer cells that may not have been completely removed during surgery, thus improving the chances of a successful outcome. En bloc resection (A) is important for complete tumor removal but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery and are not typically used for fixed tumors. Elective lymph node dissection (D) may be necessary in some cases but is not the best approach for curative surgery in fixed tumors.
Hepatic encephalopathy is a clinical syndrome seen in patients with chronic liver disease its presentation may range from mild personality changes, to psychosis, to coma. The primary chemical mediators of hepatic encephalopathy include all of the following except
- A. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
- B. Ammonia
- C. False neurotransmitters
- D. Serotonin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. Ammonia is a primary chemical mediator of hepatic encephalopathy. In patients with chronic liver disease, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is compromised, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream and subsequent neurotoxic effects causing encephalopathy. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), false neurotransmitters, and serotonin are all implicated in the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy. GABA is involved in neurotransmission, false neurotransmitters are substances that disrupt normal neurotransmission, and serotonin levels are altered in hepatic encephalopathy.