A corpus luteum would be present ________.
- A. prior to ovulation in a female
- B. after ovulation in a female
- C. in the semen of a male
- D. only on the day of ovulation in a female
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, after ovulation in a female. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into a corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to support the uterine lining. Prior to ovulation (choice A) there is a mature follicle, not a corpus luteum. Choice C is incorrect as the corpus luteum is a structure in the female reproductive system, not present in semen. Choice D is incorrect as the corpus luteum persists for about 14 days after ovulation, not just on the day of ovulation.
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A male nurse is teaching a client about the scrotum and the ability of sperm to be effective in fertility. The nurse teaches the client that the sperm is contained in the testes and that its temperature is regulated by which of the following?
- A. Penis and surrounding structures
- B. Bladder tone
- C. Structure of the scrotum
- D. Smooth and skeletal muscles in the scrotum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The scrotum contains smooth and skeletal muscles that help regulate the temperature necessary for spermatogenesis.
A 59-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy 3 days ago is complaining of flank pain and a burning sensation with urination. Her total urine output during the previous 8 hours was 210 mL. The client's temperature is 101.3°F. You call the physician to report this information and receive these orders. Which will you implement first?
- A. Insert straight catheter PRN for output less than 300 mL/8 hours.
- B. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.
- C. Send urine specimen to laboratory for culture and sensitivity.
- D. Administer ceftizoxime (Cefizox) 1 g IV every 12 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Low urine output and signs of infection necessitate checking for urinary retention.
Which of the following is the primary sign of breast cancer?
- A. A bloody discharge from the nipple
- B. A dimpling of the skin over the lesion
- C. A retraction of the nipple
- D. A painless mass in the breast
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A painless mass is often the first noticeable sign of breast cancer.
After a radical prostatectomy, a client is to be discharged with a retention catheter. He has prescriptions for hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5 mg/500 mg (Vicodin) and sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Septra). Which nursing action included in the client discharge plan is best to delegate to an experienced LPN working with you?
- A. Reinforce the need to check his temperature daily.
- B. Demonstrate how to clean around his urinary meatus.
- C. Document a discharge assessment in the client's chart.
- D. Instruct the client about the need to use stool softeners.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Reinforcing health teaching is appropriate to delegate to an LPN.
Which of the following STIs are curable?
- A. Chlamydia and gonorrhea
- B. Gonorrhea and herpes
- C. Herpes and venereal warts
- D. AIDS and syphilis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia and gonorrhea are bacterial infections that can be cured with antibiotics.