A drug with a half-life of 4 hours is administered at a dosage of 100 mg. How much of the drug will be in the patient's system 8 hours after administration?
- A. 75 mg
- B. 50 mg
- C. 37.5 mg
- D. 25 mg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the amount of drug in the body to decrease to 1 half the peak level it previously achieved. Option A would occur 2 hours after administration of the drug. Option B would occur at 4 hours. Option C would occur at 6 hours. Option D would occur at 8 hours after the original administration of the drug.
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Insulin is used for:
- A. Treatment of diabetes mellitus type I only
- B. Treatment of diabetes mellitus type II only
- C. Treatment of diabetes mellitus type III and IV only
- D. Treatment of diabetes mellitus type I and II
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Insulin is used for both type 1 (insulin-dependent) and type 2 (when other treatments fail) diabetes.
Which person should be treated with prophylactic antitubercular medication?
- A. A child who attends the same school with a child who has tuberculosis
- B. A nurse who is working in a hospital
- C. An individual who is HIV-positive with a negative TB skin test
- D. A patient who has close contact with someone who has tuberculosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Close contact with TB warrants prophylaxis; school , hospital work , or HIV without exposure don't. Personal contact with a person having a diagnosis of tuberculosis is required to indicate prophylactic treatment with antitubercular therapy.
Once phosphorylated, the intracellular segment of a receptor tyrosine kinase
- A. Activates adenylate cyclase
- B. Causes dissociation of the ligand from an allosteric binding site
- C. Terminates intracellular signaling cascades
- D. Allows docking of intracellular proteins involved in signal transduction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phosphorylation enables docking of signaling proteins, initiating transduction cascades.
Which is the most important drug in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning?
- A. Atropine sulfate
- B. Pralidoxime
- C. Diazepam
- D. Adrenaline
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine sulfate is the most critical initial treatment for organophosphate poisoning, counteracting muscarinic effects like bronchorrhea and bradycardia, while pralidoxime regenerates cholinesterase later.
A nurse is assessing a patient on ceftriaxone. Which allergy should be of particular concern?
- A. Sulfa
- B. Penicillin
- C. Tetracycline
- D. Macrolide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ceftriaxone, a cephalosporin, has a risk of cross-reactivity with penicillin allergies due to similar beta-lactam structures.
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