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A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.
- B. Ask the client to describe why she is being stalked.
- C. Recommend that the client talk with a social worker.
- D. Assure the client that the healthcare provider will see her today.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client presents with signs of distress and potential safety concerns, the priority is to provide a safe environment. Offering a safe place to relax can help the client feel secure and ready for further assessment and support. This action allows the nurse to establish rapport, ensure the client's immediate safety, and create a trusting relationship before delving into the details of the situation. Asking the client to describe why she is being stalked (Choice B) may exacerbate her distress and should come after ensuring her safety. Recommending that the client talk with a social worker (Choice C) is important but should follow immediate safety measures. Assuring the client that the healthcare provider will see her today (Choice D) is less critical than addressing her safety concerns and emotional state.
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An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is participating in a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) program. Which behavior indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. Client adheres to a meal plan and gains weight.
- B. Client discusses the impact of the disorder on family.
- C. Client expresses a desire to change behavior.
- D. Client reduces the frequency of binge eating.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In treating anorexia nervosa with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), the primary goals are to normalize eating behaviors and achieve weight restoration. Therefore, adherence to a meal plan and weight gain are crucial indicators of treatment effectiveness. While discussing the impact of the disorder on the family (Choice B) can be beneficial for therapy, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of CBT in treating anorexia nervosa. Expressing a desire to change behavior (Choice C) is a positive step, but actual behavioral changes such as adhering to a meal plan are more indicative of progress. Reducing the frequency of binge eating (Choice D) is more relevant for other eating disorders like bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa.
A client with schizophrenia is exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations. What should be the RN's initial intervention?
- A. Instruct the client to ignore the hallucinations.
- B. Encourage the client to describe the hallucinations in detail.
- C. Assess the client's perception of the hallucinations.
- D. Provide reassurance that the hallucinations are not real.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations is to assess the client's perception of the hallucinations. This step is crucial as it helps the RN determine the severity of the hallucinations and the best course of action for management and intervention. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice A) may not be effective as the hallucinations may be distressing and overwhelming. Encouraging the client to describe the hallucinations in detail (Choice B) may potentially worsen the symptoms or trigger further distress. Providing reassurance that the hallucinations are not real (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the client may genuinely believe in their reality, and this reassurance may not address the underlying issues causing the hallucinations.
A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
- B. Provide a calm and structured environment.
- C. Limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior.
- D. Promote self-care and hygiene practices.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.
An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Akathisia
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Orthostatic hypotension
- D. Drowsiness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.
The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?
- A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
- B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
- C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
- D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.